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Originally Posted by kraine27
First of all I would like to offer my sincere apologies for misspeaking earlier. Apparently, it is not permitted in this forum to make a mistake as pointed out by mcrower earlier. I hope I don't ever have to work with a guy like him that doesn't allow anyone to make a mistake, even if it is on an elementary situation. Apparently everyone didn't know the answer or the question would not have been raised in the first place.
Anyhow, Rule reference for some real help.
NFHS Case book for 2006 Season. PG53 7.3.4 situation B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws the F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. (Because it was strike three) To have the play ruled a fould ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.
Secondly, I thought this was supposed to have been an educational forum and not a place for people to run their mouths. Again, my mistake. Next time I'll know better and allow the people that are too good to learn answer the questions.
Again, I'm sorry for any confussion I may have caused.
I try to get better by learning something everyday. Guess I achieved that today.
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Kraine,
Don't let it bother you, man!
It's just that "the hands are part of the bat" is the myth that is listed #1 on the myth list. It is one of the oldest jokes around, and nobody that has umpired for a while is used to seeing someone say it.
You really can't blame people on this one. It's right up there with "tie goes to the runner" as far as untrue statements go.