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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 05:51pm
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If he's in the box with the bat between his legs and gets hit, does that mean the batter's penis is part of the bat? Just wondering...
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 07:24pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by orioles35


If he's in the box with the bat between his legs and gets hit, does that mean the batter's penis is part of the bat? Just wondering...
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 08:53pm
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My Mistake

First of all I would like to offer my sincere apologies for misspeaking earlier. Apparently, it is not permitted in this forum to make a mistake as pointed out by mcrower earlier. I hope I don't ever have to work with a guy like him that doesn't allow anyone to make a mistake, even if it is on an elementary situation. Apparently everyone didn't know the answer or the question would not have been raised in the first place.

Anyhow, Rule reference for some real help.

NFHS Case book for 2006 Season. PG53 7.3.4 situation B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws the F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. (Because it was strike three) To have the play ruled a fould ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.

Secondly, I thought this was supposed to have been an educational forum and not a place for people to run their mouths. Again, my mistake. Next time I'll know better and allow the people that are too good to learn answer the questions.

Again, I'm sorry for any confussion I may have caused.

I try to get better by learning something everyday. Guess I achieved that today.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 09:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by kraine27
First of all I would like to offer my sincere apologies for misspeaking earlier. Apparently, it is not permitted in this forum to make a mistake as pointed out by mcrower earlier. I hope I don't ever have to work with a guy like him that doesn't allow anyone to make a mistake, even if it is on an elementary situation. Apparently everyone didn't know the answer or the question would not have been raised in the first place.

Anyhow, Rule reference for some real help.

NFHS Case book for 2006 Season. PG53 7.3.4 situation B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws the F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. (Because it was strike three) To have the play ruled a fould ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.

Secondly, I thought this was supposed to have been an educational forum and not a place for people to run their mouths. Again, my mistake. Next time I'll know better and allow the people that are too good to learn answer the questions.

Again, I'm sorry for any confussion I may have caused.

I try to get better by learning something everyday. Guess I achieved that today.
Kraine,

Don't let it bother you, man!

It's just that "the hands are part of the bat" is the myth that is listed #1 on the myth list. It is one of the oldest jokes around, and nobody that has umpired for a while is used to seeing someone say it.

You really can't blame people on this one. It's right up there with "tie goes to the runner" as far as untrue statements go.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 09:57pm
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What's next on that list? I would say it's the old 1+1 for balls thrown into DBT.



Tim.
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Old Fri Mar 24, 2006, 10:11pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BigUmp56
What's next on that list? I would say it's the old 1+1 for balls thrown into DBT.



Tim.
Tim, might as well post the link.

Kraine, Dad03, and all newer umpires. These are the common myths of baseball:

http://www.lzbsa.org/rules%20myths.htm
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Old Tue Apr 04, 2006, 09:26am
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For those confused about this, one general rule to remember is that any pitch that hits the batter is dead. It can be HBP, strike (if the batter offered at it or interfered with its becoming a strike, or if it is in the strike zone), or ball (if the batter intentionally let himself be hit). But it's always a dead ball.

There's some question about what to call if the batter runs up toward the pitcher, does not offer, and is hit while out of the box, and I admit I don't yet know the ruling, but whatever it is, the ball is still dead.

So if a pitch hits a batter, you can call "dead ball" every time and then decide how to rule.

A tougher call might arise if the batter swings at a pitch in on the hands and you hear the sound of ball hitting metal, the ball goes over F6 for a hit, and the batter, now standing on 1B, needs medical attention to his hand.

Incidentally, did "the hands are part of the bat" perhaps stem from basketball? Is there something in basketball about the hand being part of the ball?
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Last edited by greymule; Tue Apr 04, 2006 at 09:33am.
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Old Tue Apr 04, 2006, 09:03am
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Location: Little Elm, TX (NW Dallas)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by kraine27
First of all I would like to offer my sincere apologies for misspeaking earlier. Apparently, it is not permitted in this forum to make a mistake as pointed out by mcrower earlier. I hope I don't ever have to work with a guy like him that doesn't allow anyone to make a mistake, even if it is on an elementary situation. Apparently everyone didn't know the answer or the question would not have been raised in the first place.

Anyhow, Rule reference for some real help.

NFHS Case book for 2006 Season. PG53 7.3.4 situation B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws the F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. (Because it was strike three) To have the play ruled a fould ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.

Secondly, I thought this was supposed to have been an educational forum and not a place for people to run their mouths. Again, my mistake. Next time I'll know better and allow the people that are too good to learn answer the questions.

Again, I'm sorry for any confussion I may have caused.

I try to get better by learning something everyday. Guess I achieved that today.
I read the sarcasm aimed at me... no problem. But I will elaborate.

You ARE allowed to come on here and make a mistake. We all do. Some live by it (PWL, et al). But you can't make THIS mistake. THIS mistake tells the world that you are NOT an umpire. This is the most basic of all umpiring misnomers/myths that NO real umpire would ever believe, even for a second. If you ARE a real umpire, and have been to even one clinic - then shame on anyone who ever taught you anything, including your clinicians. If you have actually read the book, then do it again.

Feel free to come on here and make your opinions known, by all means. BUT - please have some basis for your opinions on the various situations. Rule with the rulebook, and while you might make mistakes, you will learn. Don't rule from whatever you thought you learned from your days as a player - you might say things like, "The hands are part of the bat..."

And welcome to the site. Please don't let me chase you off just yet.
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