Fair ball hit with hands

[kraine27]

IMO. Play stands. If he didn't swing, then you have a dead ball HBP, If he swings and misses, you have a dead ball strike.

[mcrowder]

Just kill me now.

Kraine, by a book, attend a clinic.

NO - the hands are not part of the bat. This is myth 1-A in the long list of myths that need to be killed. If he swung, and the ball hit his hands, it's a dead ball strike. Doesn't matter where the ball goes.

[orioles35]

If he's in the box with the bat between his legs and gets hit, does that mean the batter's penis is part of the bat? Just wondering...

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by orioles35

If he's in the box with the bat between his legs and gets hit, does that mean the batter's penis is part of the bat? Just wondering...

[kraine27]

First of all I would like to offer my sincere apologies for misspeaking earlier. Apparently, it is not permitted in this forum to make a mistake as pointed out by mcrower earlier. I hope I don't ever have to work with a guy like him that doesn't allow anyone to make a mistake, even if it is on an elementary situation. Apparently everyone didn't know the answer or the question would not have been raised in the first place.

Anyhow, Rule reference for some real help.

NFHS Case book for 2006 Season. PG53 7.3.4 situation B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws the F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. (Because it was strike three) To have the play ruled a fould ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.

Secondly, I thought this was supposed to have been an educational forum and not a place for people to run their mouths. Again, my mistake. Next time I'll know better and allow the people that are too good to learn answer the questions.

Again, I'm sorry for any confussion I may have caused.

I try to get better by learning something everyday. Guess I achieved that today.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by kraine27

First of all I would like to offer my sincere apologies for misspeaking earlier. Apparently, it is not permitted in this forum to make a mistake as pointed out by mcrower earlier. I hope I don't ever have to work with a guy like him that doesn't allow anyone to make a mistake, even if it is on an elementary situation. Apparently everyone didn't know the answer or the question would not have been raised in the first place.

Anyhow, Rule reference for some real help.

NFHS Case book for 2006 Season. PG53 7.3.4 situation B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws the F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. (Because it was strike three) To have the play ruled a fould ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.

Secondly, I thought this was supposed to have been an educational forum and not a place for people to run their mouths. Again, my mistake. Next time I'll know better and allow the people that are too good to learn answer the questions.

Again, I'm sorry for any confussion I may have caused.

I try to get better by learning something everyday. Guess I achieved that today.

Kraine,

Don't let it bother you, man!

It's just that "the hands are part of the bat" is the myth that is listed #1 on the myth list. It is one of the oldest jokes around, and nobody that has umpired for a while is used to seeing someone say it.

You really can't blame people on this one. It's right up there with "tie goes to the runner" as far as untrue statements go.

[BigUmp56]

What's next on that list? I would say it's the old 1+1 for balls thrown into DBT.



Tim.

[mcrowder]

Originally Posted by kraine27

First of all I would like to offer my sincere apologies for misspeaking earlier. Apparently, it is not permitted in this forum to make a mistake as pointed out by mcrower earlier. I hope I don't ever have to work with a guy like him that doesn't allow anyone to make a mistake, even if it is on an elementary situation. Apparently everyone didn't know the answer or the question would not have been raised in the first place.

Anyhow, Rule reference for some real help.

NFHS Case book for 2006 Season. PG53 7.3.4 situation B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws the F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. (Because it was strike three) To have the play ruled a fould ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.

Secondly, I thought this was supposed to have been an educational forum and not a place for people to run their mouths. Again, my mistake. Next time I'll know better and allow the people that are too good to learn answer the questions.

Again, I'm sorry for any confussion I may have caused.

I try to get better by learning something everyday. Guess I achieved that today.

I read the sarcasm aimed at me... no problem. But I will elaborate.

You ARE allowed to come on here and make a mistake. We all do. Some live by it (PWL, et al). But you can't make THIS mistake. THIS mistake tells the world that you are NOT an umpire. This is the most basic of all umpiring misnomers/myths that NO real umpire would ever believe, even for a second. If you ARE a real umpire, and have been to even one clinic - then shame on anyone who ever taught you anything, including your clinicians. If you have actually read the book, then do it again.

Feel free to come on here and make your opinions known, by all means. BUT - please have some basis for your opinions on the various situations. Rule with the rulebook, and while you might make mistakes, you will learn. Don't rule from whatever you thought you learned from your days as a player - you might say things like, "The hands are part of the bat..."

And welcome to the site. Please don't let me chase you off just yet.

[kraine27]

Originally Posted by Tim C

" . . . "the hands are part of the bat"."

It is indeed spring.

So what are you saying here? Hit or no hit?

[CJN]

Originally Posted by kraine27

So what are you saying here? Hit or no hit?

He's saying no hit. This is extremely elementary situation made more complex be the widespread myth that hands are part of the bat.

As mcrowder said, the ball is dead and the result of the pitch is a strike because the batter swung at the pitch.

[phillips.alex]

He is saying the batter is charged with a strike and still at bat.


If a ball hits any part of the body (including hair and hands) then the ball is dead. If the batter swings or is hit in the strike zone, it is a strike. If the batter does not attempt to move, and the ball is outside of the strike zone then it is a ball. If the batter attempts to move and does not swing then it is a hit-by-pitch and the batter is awarded first, and all forced runners advance.

I think that is all of the possible situations for a hit batter.

[ajjl22]

Originally Posted by kraine27

....... If he swings and misses, you have a dead ball strike.

What!?

If you swung and missed why would the ball be dead?

these guys crack me up

[WhatWuzThatBlue]

This is one of those myths that perpetuate themselves with Dads who never made it beyond Little League.

If you truly believe that the hands are part of the bat, please tell me where you buy those bats. It's been a long time since I purchased said equipment, but I don't recall getting hands as part of the deal. I hope I still have the receipt.