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Are there any differences regarding runner int. versus umpire interference in the following example?
R2 is struck by a batted ball that has passed the 3B but the SS still has a play on the ball, this is interference on R2. U3 is struck by a batted ball that has passed the 3B but the SS still has a play on the ball. Is this also umpire interference or is the rule different when it applies to umpires? Thanks. |
Quote:
No interference on the umpire because the batted ball merely has to pass an infielder, other infielders are not considered here. mick |
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