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A-hole... i mean A-rod should have been ejected
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"Some guys they just give up living, and start dying little by little, piece by piece. Some guys come home from work and wash-up, and they go Racing In The Street." - Springsteen, 1978 |
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I hope Windy was watching!
NO ONE reversed anything until Marsh came to West and asked for help.
Marsh made the original call. He was obviously screened, but it was his call and he made it. Joe West and ALL of the other umpires stayed out of it, until Francona came out. He tried to go to West, who sent him to Marsh. Marsh then called West over and got help. Then Marsh called A-Rod out. EXACTLY the way it should be done. No ump jumped in on Marsh's call. Marsh asked for help, got it, and changed his own call. Joe West did not come offer help until asked, even though he saw something Marsh did not. And even though other umps saw something (or they would not have convinced Marsh), the PU did not make the changed call, the ump that made it did it. Well done. And McCarver still butchered the description of the play and the rule. |
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Ficke's actions went FAR beyond what A-Rod did. Cox even sat Ficke down for his actions that day. Ficke did not slap the ball out of F3's hand, Ficke grabbed an outstretched arm and bent it backward.
Yes, A-Rod should be called out, but I don't think his actions came anywhere near ejection. He did not try to harm anyone, he tried to knock the ball loose. Sure, it was illegal, and he should be out. But he slapped at a glove, he didn't throw a forearm shiver at an opponent. I hate the Yankees and not even I would have EJed A-Rod. |
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Marsh signaled safe to mean "no tag" and the announcers wondered why he was calling safe when A-Rod hadn't touched first. Maybe the umps should demand announcer training in their next contract negotiations.
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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I guess the "Get it Right" philosophy is working. My only question is C.C. Randy Marsh said in a press conference after the game that "the runner(s) must return to the base occupied at the time of the interference". If that's the case, why did Jeter get put back on first base rather than second base. It look like Jeter was already at second base by the time Arroyo attempted to tag Rodriguez (after all, it was a slow roller that Arroyo was going to flip the ball to first base when he realized that Mienkiewtz (sp?) was off the bag - he then reached to tag A-Rod). Anybody see or got anything different???
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The "return to base occupied at time of interference" clause applies only if the runner in question has already achieved first base. In this case the interfernce occurred before the batter-runner reached first, thus the runner is returned to the last occupied base.
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When the interference happened had all runners including the batter runner reached one base? No, that is why Jeter got sent back to first.
On the other hand when a team screws up like that, we need to punish them with the worst penalty. I might be wrong but I am sticking to it. |
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