Runner Missing 1st base on a force play

[cbfoulds]

Originally posted by UmpJordan
I believe that on a force play at first base if he is tagged after not having touched the base it would be an appeal play and clearly would be out. My question is if the umpire should wait for an appeal to call him out for missing first base or does a force play by definition require the runner to touch the base to be called safe?

Oh, crap; I thought that part of the thread title was merely surplusage.

THE PLAY ON BR @ 1st IS NOT A FORCE PLAY. See: 2.00 "Force Play".

My questions related to what I thought your issue was, namely, when BR passes, but does not touch 1st base, is he called out immediately, or is it an appeal play?

My 1st question was, does timing matter? 'Cause I can see a case being made for banging BR out immediately in A [BR & ball arrive at the same (or virtually)instant]; whereas in B [BR clearly past base when ball arrives] things are gonna look peculiar if you call him out when the ball arrives after he is 2 steps past the bag: makes good sense to require some indication by F3 that they are appealing a missed touch.

My second question applies to both A & B, presuming you DO NOT bang him out in A. A similar discussion arose this spring about proper mechanics at Home plate when the runner fails to touch home: either with or without an attempted play at the plate, do you signal SAFE, or nothing?

[Edited by cbfoulds on Aug 6th, 2004 at 04:26 PM]