Runner Missing 1st base on a force play

[UmpJordan]

In your first question you ask if it matters if he is safe by the ball reaching at the same time as the runner passing over base or if the runner is clearly past the base at the time the ball arrives. There is no difference because had he touched the base at the same time the ball arrived or if he has tocuhed the base and gone 2 steps over the base then the call would be the exact same. There is no difference in how the play should be interpretated. The second question is in part what I'm trying to ask.