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If the ball is past the first baseman and the second baseman had no chance at the ball, why would it be interference.
It would appear to me that both parts of the rule are satisfied for there not to be interference. The ball is through or by a fielder and no other infielder has a chance to make a play on the ball?
What does it matter whether any fielder had a chance at the ball as long as the ball is through or by a fielder with no other being able to play the ball, assuming that the runner did not intentionally let the ball hit him.
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Well I am certainly wiser than this man. It is only too likely that neither of us has any knowledge to boast of; but he thinks that he knows something which he does not know, whereas I am quite conscious of my ignorance. At any rate it seems that I am wiser than he is to this small extent, that I do not think that I know what I do not know. ~Socrates
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Fri Jun 25, 2004, 08:26am
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