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Old Tue Jun 29, 2004, 01:54pm
bob jenkins bob jenkins is offline
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Join Date: Aug 1999
Posts: 18,019
Quote:
Originally posted by Kaliix
I see what you guys are saying. What I don't understand is what does it matter where in relation the ball is to the fielder, as long as it's by him and the runner doesn't "let" himself be hit (read intentionally). (and no other fielder has a chance on the ball

I see it as infielders and outfielders. If the ball is by the infield (read no infielder has a play), the runner shouldn't be penalized if the batter smokes a liner in the hole right at him, when the ball is clearly headed to the outfield. You know what I mean?
Rule: The runner is out when hit by a fair batted ball in fair territory. (Call this rule 1)

Counterpoint: What if the fielder deflects the ball? The runner can't be expected to avoid that.

Rule: (Rule 1) + except if the ball is deflected. (== Rule 2)

Counterpoint: What if the fielder should have made the play, but the ball goes right through his legs? If the runner is right behind the fielder, the runner can't be expected to avoid the ball.

Rule: (Rule 2) + and except if the ball goes through or by an infielder (== Rule 3)

Counterpoint: What if another fielder could have made a play? The defense shouldn't be penalized for this.

Rule: (Rule 3) + unless another infielder has a play.

This equals the current rule (yeah -- I know it's not complete, but I think it will suffice for this discussion).

There is an interpretation of the rule known as "the string theory" -- connect the infielders with an imaginary string. IF the ball crosses the string, the runner is not out when hit by the batted ball. That seems to be your and DG's interpretation. It's not the OBR interpretation, though.

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