Runner Hit By Batted Ball

[DG]

Originally posted by bob jenkins

Define "past."

If you mean "through or immediately by" then your ruling is correct -- R1 had a "reasonable assumption" that F3 would make a play, so isn't penalized when hit by the ball -- he had no reasonable cahnce to avoid the ball (iow, it's the same as if the ball were deflected).

If you mean (only) "farther from home plate", then your ruling is wrong -- R1 is still expected to avoid the batted ball.

I generally think of a 1B man holding a runner being slightly in front of the the runner, ie closer to home than the runner. When the pitch is in progress the 1B man generally comes off the bag and is in front of the runner behind him. If the ball goes by him, it is through or immediately by him. I don't see many cases where the 1B man is holding the runner and then ends up behind the runner when the pitch is made. Draw a line between 1B and 2B. If 1B is in front of the line and runner behind the line then the ball is through or immediately by the 1B when it goes past him.

[Kaliix]

Okay...

Originally posted by bob jenkins


There is an interpretation of the rule known as "the string theory" -- connect the infielders with an imaginary string. IF the ball crosses the string, the runner is not out when hit by the batted ball. That seems to be your and DG's interpretation. It's not the OBR interpretation, though.