The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Baseball
Register FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

 
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
Prev Previous Post   Next Post Next
  #7 (permalink)  
Old Thu Apr 08, 2004, 10:49am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2001
Posts: 252
Why must pitcher disengage?

Here is my problem. A pitcher who is in the set position while on the mound can do the following:

1) Step towards first while throwing the ball to F3 with R1 on first
2) Can step towards second while R1 advancing towards second
3) Can step towards third while R2 is advancing towards thirds

Logic tells us that he should be able to step towards home while R3 is advancing towards home without disengaging.

Where in Fed rules does it say that he must disengage from the rubber to put out a runner? To the contrary 6-1-3 says that a pitcher may turn on his pivot foot or lift it in a jump turn to step with the non-pivot foot toward a base while throwing or feinting as outlined in 6-2-4 and 2-28-5

6-2-4b implies that a pitcher may step towards a base with his non-pivot foot to retire a runner. There is no mention anywhere about the need for a pitcher to disengage inorder to retire a runner.
Thanks

Greg
Reply With Quote
 

Bookmarks


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On



All times are GMT -5. The time now is 03:09am.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1