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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 18, 2016, 08:20am
Coach Paul
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
...If F3 drops to the ground then catches the ball then the runner contacts F3 -- probably legal...
I'd say that would be obstruction and therefore ILLEGAL.
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Old Mon Apr 18, 2016, 09:05am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CoachPaul View Post
I'd say that would be obstruction and therefore ILLEGAL.
Why? the runner wasn't "hindered" until F3 already had the ball.
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Old Tue Apr 19, 2016, 11:31pm
Coach Paul
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
Why? the runner wasn't "hindered" until F3 already had the ball.
He dropped to his knee before catching the ball. That's what you wrote. That's like a catcher blocking the plate without the ball.
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Old Tue Apr 19, 2016, 11:46pm
Archaic Power Monger
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CoachPaul View Post
He dropped to his knee before catching the ball. That's what you wrote. That's like a catcher blocking the plate without the ball.

A fielder can be in front of a bag without the ball. What he can't do is hinder the runner when he doesn't have the ball. There is a difference.
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Old Wed Apr 20, 2016, 07:29am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CoachPaul View Post
He dropped to his knee before catching the ball. That's what you wrote. That's like a catcher blocking the plate without the ball.
And on a pick-off, the runner isn't likely to be hindered until the actual moment of contact -- so if the fielder has the ball when the contact occurs, no OBS. (yes, there are some exceptions; and NCAA makes this move OBS even if the fielder has the ball when the contact occurs)
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Old Wed Apr 20, 2016, 02:50pm
Coach Paul
 
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If F3 blocks the runner's access to the base without the ball, he's obstructed him unless the tag is applied before contact. We wouldn't allow the runner to push F3 off the base and interfere. If the pick off throw drew F3 I to the path of the runner, then I would not have obstruction.
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Old Wed Apr 20, 2016, 09:39pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CoachPaul View Post
If the pick off throw drew F3 I to the path of the runner, then I would not have obstruction.
Why not?

F3 bumps R1 and knocks him off balance as he reaches for an errant throw. F3 catches the ball and tags R3.
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Old Wed Apr 20, 2016, 10:04pm
Coach Paul
 
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Why? You can't be serious. F3 has a right to go for the ball. If the throw draws him into the runner it's incidental contact while making a baseball play. Both players doing the right thing and occupying the same space. How about you explain why F3 has no right to move to make a play on an errant throw. I'm sure we would all learn something new.
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