Trick pickoff play at 2nd (FED)

[David Emerling]

We've all seen (on the internet) the fake pickoff play at 2nd where the pitcher twirls and throws, the middle infielders dive as if trying to catch a wild throw, the centerfielder runs in as if he is trying to retrieve a loose ball. But the pitcher never actually throws the ball. The runner, fooled, tries to run to 3rd and is put out easily.

I've seen this on the internet many times. Some teams are very slick at it. They have clearly practiced it. I was working the plate and experienced it for the first time in one of my games. The runner didn't fall for it, however. It wasn't particularly well executed, in my opinion. Nevertheless, I got to thinking about that play after the game. There was a lot of yelling on the part of the defense during this play. Many of them were yelling, "Get the ball!" There was all kinds of shouting to heighten the drama of their ruse. Yet, the pitcher had the ball the whole time.

I'm wondering if this would rise to the level of verbal obstruction. I'm thinking that they can do all the acting they want, but as soon as they add deceptive yelling into their act, it might be crossing the line.

What do you think?

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

[Matt]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

We've all seen (on the internet) the fake pickoff play at 2nd where the pitcher twirls and throws, the middle infielders dive as if trying to catch a wild throw, the centerfielder runs in as if he is trying to retrieve a loose ball. But the pitcher never actually throws the ball. The runner, fooled, tries to run to 3rd and is put out easily.

I've seen this on the internet many times. Some teams are very slick at it. They have clearly practiced it. I was working the plate and experienced it for the first time in one of my games. The runner didn't fall for it, however. It wasn't particularly well executed, in my opinion. Nevertheless, I got to thinking about that play after the game. There was a lot of yelling on the part of the defense during this play. Many of them were yelling, "Get the ball!" There was all kinds of shouting to heighten the drama of their ruse. Yet, the pitcher had the ball the whole time.

I'm wondering if this would rise to the level of verbal obstruction. I'm thinking that they can do all the acting they want, but as soon as they add deceptive yelling into their act, it might be crossing the line.

What do you think?

David Emerling
Memphis, TN

The threshold for verbal obstruction is if the statement is said to an offensive player or mimics an offensive participant.

[David Emerling]

Originally Posted by Matt

The threshold for verbal obstruction is if the statement is said to an offensive player or mimics an offensive participant.

Does this mean that a defensive player can simply yell "Foul ball!" because it is a general statement (i.e. not directed to an offensive player)? It certainly is not mimicking an offensive participant.

Can a defensive player yell "Foul ball!" on a hit? Or, would he have to specifically tell an offensive player that it was a "Foul ball"? I guess there can be a subtle yet significant difference there.

[jwwashburn]

Originally Posted by Matt

The threshold for verbal obstruction is if the statement is said to an offensive player or mimics an offensive participant.

Where did you get that wording?

SECTION 22 OBSTRUCTION AND FAKE TAG
ART. 1 . . . Obstruction is an act (intentional or unintentional, as well as physical or verbal) by a fielder, any member of the defensive team or its team personnel that hinders a runner or changes the pattern of play as in 5-1-3 and 8-3-2; or when a catcher or fielder hinders a batter as in
5-1-2b, 8-1-1e, 8-3-1c and 8-3-2. When obstruction occurs, the ball becomes dead at the end of playing action and the umpire has authority to determine which base or bases shall be awarded the runners according to the rule violated (Exceptions 8-4-2c, 8-4-2d).
ART. 2. . . A fake tag is an act by a defensive player without the ball that simulates a tag. A fake tag is considered obstruction.
ART. 3 . . . The fielder without possession of the ball denies access to the base the runner is attempting to achieve.

[bob jenkins]

One example can be found in 2.22.1 -- where the case play was changed several yeas ago from the fielder yelling "I've got it" to "Get back" to decoy the stealing runner.

What Matt says about this is a very good guideline

[David Emerling]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

One example can be found in 2.22.1 -- where the case play was changed several years ago from the fielder yelling "I've got it" to "Get back" to decoy the stealing runner.

In your opinion, do you think they changed the wording from "I've got it!" to "Get back! Get back!" because, in the first case, the fielder is not addressing the runner whereas, in the second case, he is? Therefore, saying "I've got it!" would not be considered verbal obstruction?

Because, if a runner retreated, thinking that the batter had hit a pop-up when the fielder says "I've got it!", wouldn't that "change the pattern of play"? In other words, would the runner have not retreated had the fielder not said, "I've got it!"?

I'm just asking.

In the trick pick-off play at 2nd, it seems to me a key element of the ruse, to get the runner to attempt to advance to 3rd or wander off the bag, is the cacophony from the defense of "Get the ball! Get the ball!" ... while, all the time, the pitcher is holding the ball. They are senseless verbal exclamations.

In the fake pop-up play, it sort of makes sense to say "I've got it!" when the ball is actually thrown to the fielder - even though the defense is clearly trying to pretend that the batter hit a pop-up. But, yelling "Get the ball! Get the ball!" seems to make no sense when there is no need to get the ball.

[bob jenkins]

I think the question has been asked and answered. At least, how I would rule and why (until / unless there's more specific FED guidance) has been.