Weird Play

[nine01c]

Warren: Please clarify: If the situation was the same except that R1 is the one tagged out (after overstepping 2B), or R2 is the one tagged out (after overstepping 3B),
would the ruling be the same? Is there a different ruling if it is the BR called out after missing 1B (that he is entitled to after the base on balls)? This is different than a batted ball.

If the ruling is the same for any runner, then 7.04(b) clearly states that the run scores (even if R3 hasn't reached home plate yet). It gives the play above with R1 being the tagged-out runner at 2B, and justifies WHY the run scores.

Are you saying that the rule is different for the BR? Or, are you saying that OBR is wrong in it's explanation of this play?