Quote:
Originally posted by nine01c
Answer: OBR The (dumb) runner is OUT, but the run scores.
See 7.04(b) A runner forced to advance without liability to be put out may advance past the base to which he is entitled only at his peril. If such a runner, forced to advance, is put out for the third out before a preceding runner, also forced to advance, touches home plate, the run shall score.
Then there is a similar play described, with an explaination. Basically, it is not considered a force out.
Since this play occured at 1B, whether the code allows the BR to pass 1B on a base on balls or not, does not protect him. He never touched 1B in the first place, so the tag is an appeal that he missed the bag.
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Ok, I have to take issue with your deductive process here, nine01c.
The batter-runner is NEVER "forced", within the meaning of the rules, at 1st base. Why? Because he has not yet occupied any base to be "forced" to vacate by reason of his becoming a runner. That is why the rules specifically contain OBR 6.05(j) and OBR 4.09(a)Exception(1) - to overcome the dilemma that the BR isn't actually "forced" at 1st base.
Nevertheless, your citation from OBR 7.04(b)Comment and the following explanatory Play certainly
do apply to R3 in certain circumstances.
IF the tag out on the BR at 1st base is adjudged a timing play, then R3's
run scores under 7.04(b)Comment and Play. However,
IF the umpire adjudges the tag was an unmistakable act of appeal, then the
run does not score under OBR 4.09(a) Exception(1).
Hope this helps
Cheers