Looking for clarification

[Rufus]

I'm a coach of a 12U rec team playing USSSA rules. Last night our catcher got a little eager to squeeze a pitch and obstructed the batter when the bat made contact with his glove. The pitch was tipped foul. The umpire called catcher's interference (I think he meant obstruction) and awarded the batter first base.

I'm not questioning the call (honestly, my catcher had no business being close enough for the batter to hit). Mine is more a theoretical question. Once the ball is fouled, according to USSSA 8.05.I:

The ball is dead and runners advance one (1) base, or return to their bases, without liability to be put out, when:

8.05.I.5

A foul ball is not caught; runners return.

Now, is a tip considered a foul ball, or does it depend on if the catcher catches it? If it is a foul ball, would it matter if the obstruction occurred before or after the foul (i.e., is it a timing thing)?

8.07.G.1 says:

When obstruction occurs, the umpire shall call or signal "Obstruction": ... if the batter runner is obstructed before he touches first (1st) base, the ball is dead and all runner shall advance at least one (1) base beyond the base he had last legally touched before the obstruction.

My interpretation of this is that if it occurs before the foul there is no foul since the ball is dead. What about afterward? Is there a priority to which one occurred?

Appreciate any clarity you all can provide.