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Old Mon Nov 12, 2012, 11:18am
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Originally Posted by youngump View Post
I think this kind of reasoning leads to a serious problem in the deep recesses of what could happen.
To this I agree, some serious TWP's could come from this...

Quote:
And I think logically that a runner can be considered to have passed another runner without fully passing them if home plate is involved, but perhaps something in the book explicitly forecloses that though it would solve a lot of potential problems.
Something in the book does... the rule itself.
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Old Mon Nov 12, 2012, 02:18pm
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Originally Posted by MD Longhorn View Post
Something in the book does... the rule itself.
Yeah, without having my book handy I was hoping someone would point out what does. My question another way: is passing defined by rule or by interpretation?
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Old Mon Nov 12, 2012, 02:43pm
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You will find it...

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Originally Posted by youngump View Post
Yeah, without having my book handy I was hoping someone would point out what does. My question another way: is passing defined by rule or by interpretation?
in Rules Supplements under "Passing A Runner"
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Old Mon Nov 12, 2012, 05:12pm
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Originally Posted by DeputyUICHousto View Post
in Rules Supplements under "Passing A Runner"
So it is. That leaves very little room for maneuvering. And since the definition of force doesn't include it coming off for a trailing runner scoring, I'm taking it you have an out in the first scenario I posted?

Last edited by youngump; Mon Nov 12, 2012 at 05:15pm.
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