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Old Thu Sep 27, 2012, 01:06pm
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Join Date: Sep 2012
Posts: 13
Quote:
Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve View Post
Two problems with your response here.

1) Your original post doesn't say, suggest, or even imply that the player intentionally kicked the ball. The answer you got is the rule for the play you posed. If you want a ruling on a ball intentionally taken to dead ball territory, you need to ask THAT question.

2) The rule you cite has even less to do with this play than your now changing the play. The fielder you described never had possession, and therefore cannot lose possession.

Try again which rule you want to apply to which play.

The original play is 8.5-I(2),EFFECT.

Your intentional scenario is 8.5-K, EFFECT

8.5-G has nothing to do with either.


Just trying to find the correct answer.
It is not known if he "intentionally" batted it (only he would know that).

All players would have scored easily if it was not for him batting the ball.

I guess from now on, when a ball gets past me, I will just slide and "accidentally" kick the ball under the fence. lol
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Old Thu Sep 27, 2012, 01:10pm
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Join Date: May 2008
Location: Houston, TX
Posts: 297
Wow

Quote:
Originally Posted by cal9323 View Post
Just trying to find the correct answer.
It is not known if he "intentionally" batted it (only he would know that).

All players would have scored easily if it was not for him batting the ball.

I guess from now on, when a ball gets past me, I will just slide and "accidentally" kick the ball under the fence. lol
Do you believe the ball was intentionally kicked under the fence? Or did the defender make an attempt to field the ball and the ball hit his leg/foot and went under the fence?

Unless the umpire deemed it to be an intentional act then the only ruling you can make is a ground rule double. And since none of us were there we can only use the information available...sorry that you don't like the answer.
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