OBS - Safe Base to Grant?

[bd41flpk]

The following is your basic textbook OBS play, I just would like some comments on the proper (verbal - if any) mechanic?

B/R hits the ball to the right side of the infield and the 2nd baseman deflects the ball into short right field. The 1st baseman has his back to the play and is in the base path so of course the B/R runs into the 1st baseman.

I naturally call OBS (delayed dead ball).

Question: (as per rule: 'the runner may not be called out between the two bases where they were obstructed')

1) if the B/R gingerly walks towards 2nd base, does that mean that he is granted 'cart blanche' to then freely obtain 2nd base w/o getting called out?

2) if the B/R simply stands there in between 1st and 2nd due to confusion on the OBS call and is tagged out, do I simply award him 1st base ?

3) is there any kind of 'verbal' mention of where the B/R is 'safe' to go w/o getting called out?

Thanks in advance for the interpretations.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by bd41flpk

The following is your basic textbook OBS play, I just would like some comments on the proper (verbal - if any) mechanic?

B/R hits the ball to the right side of the infield and the 2nd baseman deflects the ball into short right field. The 1st baseman has his back to the play and is in the base path so of course the B/R runs into the 1st baseman.

I naturally call OBS (delayed dead ball).

Question: (as per rule: 'the runner may not be called out between the two bases where they were obstructed')

1) if the B/R gingerly walks towards 2nd base, does that mean that he is granted 'cart blanche' to then freely obtain 2nd base w/o getting called out?

2) if the B/R simply stands there in between 1st and 2nd due to confusion on the OBS call and is tagged out, do I simply award him 1st base ?

3) is there any kind of 'verbal' mention of where the B/R is 'safe' to go w/o getting called out?

Thanks in advance for the interpretations.

1) Not quite. The runner is subject to being put out at which time the ball immediately becomes dead and the runner is awarded the base they would have obtained absent the obstruction in this case 1st base.
2) See 1.
3) No. When the play is over or the obstructed runner becomes out (and not on one of the exceptions) then announce the base they are awarded.

[EsqUmp]

Originally Posted by bd41flpk

1) if the B/R gingerly walks towards 2nd base, does that mean that he is granted 'cart blanche' to then freely obtain 2nd base w/o getting called out?

2) if the B/R simply stands there in between 1st and 2nd due to confusion on the OBS call and is tagged out, do I simply award him 1st base ?

3) is there any kind of 'verbal' mention of where the B/R is 'safe' to go w/o getting called out?

1. He is granted the base he would have gotten had he not been obstructed. You may elect to return the runner to 1st base. He cannot be called out between 1st & 2nd base (unless he commits interference or on appeal for a missed base).

2. When an obstructed runner is tagged out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred, the ball is immediately dead. He is awarded the base he would have reached had he not been obstructed.

3. No verbal.

[CecilOne]

Verbal is only "obstruction".

Please delete all references to the awful idea in Q #3.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by bd41flpk

The following is your basic textbook OBS play, I just would like some comments on the proper (verbal - if any) mechanic?

Throw out the left arm and if you choose to verbalize something (different assns have their own mech), it is only "obstruction" and I suggest you do so in a low volume.

AFA the protection, no there is no verbal or signal. Think about the backlash you would have if you say, "obstruction, 3rd base" and then the runner misses 2nd base and, on appeal, you have to rule him out. We know what the rule is, but I guarantee, the first thing out of someone's mouth will be, "but you gave him 3rd base". We know that is wrong, but it is what it is. It is sort of the same reason an umpire should announce an award by the number of bases, not the base to which the runner is entitled.

[bd41flpk]

Originally Posted by EsqUmp

1. He is granted the base he would have gotten had he not been obstructed. You may elect to return the runner to 1st base. He cannot be called out between 1st & 2nd base (unless he commits interference or on appeal for a missed base).

2. When an obstructed runner is tagged out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred, the ball is immediately dead. He is awarded the base he would have reached had he not been obstructed.

3. No verbal.

Just wanted to confirm the statement: '...2. When an obstructed runner is tagged out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred, the ball is immediately dead. He is awarded the base he would have reached had he not been obstructed....'

Is the ball truly dead immediately upon the 'tag'? What happens if there's other activity going on with the other runners ahead of this one?

Other than that this all makes sense...thanks

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by bd41flpk

Is the ball truly dead immediately upon the 'tag'? What happens if there's other activity going on with the other runners ahead of this one?

Yes. But the rule also tells you to place ALL runners where you think they would have achieved. So say you have a runner rounding third and a play at 2nd on a runner that was obstructed at first. When they tag that runner, the ball is dead, award the runner 2nd (or 1st, possibly), and then put the other runner either home or 3rd based on where you think they would have gotten had the play continued.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by bd41flpk

Just wanted to confirm the statement: '...2. When an obstructed runner is tagged out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred, the ball is immediately dead. He is awarded the base he would have reached had he not been obstructed....'

Is the ball truly dead immediately upon the 'tag'? What happens if there's other activity going on with the other runners ahead of this one?

Other than that this all makes sense...thanks

It's almost true. The only time the ball is not dead is if the runner will actually be out on the tag. Just think how crazy the field would get if you had a runner tagged for the third "out" but the runner was going to be safe because of obstruction so everybody stops running and pretty soon somebody else is out and you have a mess. Killing the play makes life simple. Then you just figure out where everybody else was going to get absent the obstruction and killing the play and move on from there.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by bd41flpk

Just wanted to confirm the statement: '...2. When an obstructed runner is tagged out between the two bases where the obstruction occurred, the ball is immediately dead. He is awarded the base he would have reached had he not been obstructed....'

Is the ball truly dead immediately upon the 'tag'? What happens if there's other activity going on with the other runners ahead of this one?

Other than that this all makes sense...thanks

Don't care, the ball is dead if the defense executes a play which puts out the OBS runner. There are no alternatives, it is what it is by rule. You award the runners who were affected by the OBS the bases they would have achieved had the OBS not occurred. If there is a conflict, any awards are based off the OBS runner.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Don't care, the ball is dead if the defense executes a play which puts out the OBS runner. There are no alternatives, it is what it is by rule. You award the runners who were affected by the OBS the bases they would have achieved had the OBS not occurred. If there is a conflict, any awards are based off the OBS runner.

You posted this after me, so I'm a little confused. Are you suggesting what I said isn't right?

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by youngump

You posted this after me, so I'm a little confused. Are you suggesting what I said isn't right?

After you ... but look what he quoted. No, he was not responding to you. He was responding to the person he quoted.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by youngump

You posted this after me, so I'm a little confused. Are you suggesting what I said isn't right?

I wasn't, but this comment is confusing:

The only time the ball is not dead is if the runner will actually be out on the tag

When would that be?

[CecilOne]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

I wasn't, but this comment is confusing:

The only time the ball is not dead is if the runner will actually be out on the tag

When would that be?

I think he meant a play where something supersedes the OBS, like INT or ...

[HugoTafurst]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

I think he meant a play where something supersedes the OBS, like INT or ...

That's even MORE confusing... There is no tag out on an interference out (but yes, the ball ceases to be delayed dead ball).

Waiting for youngump's explaination.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

I wasn't, but this comment is confusing:

The only time the ball is not dead is if the runner will actually be out on the tag

When would that be?

I meant if the runner has achieved the protected base and there's been a subsequent play on another runner. Consequently the runner is actually out when tagged. And since the runner is out we have no need to kill the play.