What do you have!

[rwest]

B1 hits the ball foul. She sees the ball is heading toward fair territory. She hits the ball again before it touches or crosses the foul line.

What is your ruling? ASA and FED.

[SpringtownHawk]

How then is it foul?

[rwest]

Originally Posted by SpringtownHawk

How then is it foul?

Because the ball was hit a second time in foul territory. In FED you can get an out because the ball had a chance to go fair.

That was my point to the thread.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by rwest

In FED you can get an out because the ball had a chance to go fair.

But only if the umpire judges it could have gone fair.

I find it interesting that ASA doesn't have a similar ruling.

[rwest]

Originally Posted by Manny A

But only if the umpire judges it could have gone fair.

I find it interesting that ASA doesn't have a similar ruling.

ASA and all baseball and softball rule sets that I know of allow for the defense to touch a ball that is foul to prevent it from becoming fair. I guess ASA believes the offense should have the same right.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by rwest

ASA and all baseball and softball rule sets that I know of allow for the defense to touch a ball that is foul to prevent it from becoming fair. I guess ASA believes the offense should have the same right.

Until you started this thread, I assumed ALL rule sets in both softball and baseball prohibited a batter from intentionally contacting a foul batted ball a second time if the umpire judged the ball could go fair.

How about this: Does ASA allow the BR to intentionally contact a foul batted ball with her bat or body as she's running up the first base line if it appears it's going to go into fair territory? If not, where's that consistency you mentioned?

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by SpringtownHawk

How then is it foul?

Huh?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by rwest

B1 hits the ball foul. She sees the ball is heading toward fair territory. She hits the ball again before it touches or crosses the foul line.

What is your ruling? ASA and FED.

ASA - Foul ball

[youngump]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

ASA - Foul ball

Do 7.6D-F only apply to the first hit? That seems reasonable enough, but it's not completely clear.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by youngump

Do 8.6D-F only apply to the first hit? That seems reasonable enough, but it's not completely clear.

Assuming you mean 7.6, yes.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by youngump

Do 7.6D-F only apply to the first hit? That seems reasonable enough, but it's not completely clear.

What does "batting" have to do with this?

Ya know, this is the type of **** that screws things up and causes unnecessary confusion.

Folks, you need to stay on point. ASA has addressed this at clinics. Just as a defender can THROW a glove and hit a batted ball in foul territory to keep it from becoming fair, an offensive player may also do the same thing.

If the FED truly allows this to be ruled an out, doesn't that contradict the logic they used for a pitched ball in the batter's box ruling?

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

ASA has addressed this at clinics. Just as a defender can THROW a glove and hit a batted ball in foul territory to keep it from becoming fair, an offensive player may also do the same thing.

But unless I'm wrong, ASA is alone on their viewpoint. FED and NCAA both penalize the batter-runner with an out if she contacts a batted ball in foul territory that is judged that it might go fair. Not sure of other sanctioning softball organizations. And most, if not all, baseball organizations are the same.

So what logic ASA used to come up with this position is a mystery. Why would a batter or runner want to intentionally contact a foul ball that might go fair other than to prevent an out? Isn't that why the interference rule exists?

ASA penalizes a batter for unintentionally contacting a loose ball while she runs to first after an uncaught third strike, but they don't penalize a batter for intentionally contacting a batted ball that is foul but might go fair. I'm just not tracking...

[rwest]

Originally Posted by Manny A

But unless I'm wrong, ASA is alone on their viewpoint. FED and NCAA both penalize the batter-runner with an out if she contacts a batted ball in foul territory that is judged that it might go fair. Not sure of other sanctioning softball organizations. And most, if not all, baseball organizations are the same.

So what logic ASA used to come up with this position is a mystery. Why would a batter or runner want to intentionally contact a foul ball that might go fair other than to prevent an out? Isn't that why the interference rule exists?

ASA penalizes a batter for unintentionally contacting a loose ball while she runs to first after an uncaught third strike, but they don't penalize a batter for intentionally contacting a batted ball that is foul but might go fair. I'm just not tracking...

Why would a defensive player want to intentionally contact a foul ball that might go fair other than to prevent a run from scoring or to prevent the batter-runner from obtaining first base. Isn't that one reason why the obstruction rule exists?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Manny A

But unless I'm wrong, ASA is alone on their viewpoint. FED and NCAA both penalize the batter-runner with an out if she contacts a batted ball in foul territory that is judged that it might go fair. Not sure of other sanctioning softball organizations. And most, if not all, baseball organizations are the same.

So what logic ASA used to come up with this position is a mystery. Why would a batter or runner want to intentionally contact a foul ball that might go fair other than to prevent an out? Isn't that why the interference rule exists?

No mystery. A batted ball touched on or over foul territory prior to passing 1st or 3rd base is a foul ball. Nothing hard to figure out here, it is the same in all games.

Is the defender not permitted to do the same thing? Nothing new here.

ASA penalizes a batter for unintentionally contacting a loose ball while she runs to first after an uncaught third strike, but they don't penalize a batter for intentionally contacting a batted ball that is foul but might go fair. I'm just not tracking...

Here we go again. You are refering to a pitched ball that was mishandled, though I agree this form of INT should be required to be INT. To the point that I submitted a rule change that was rejected. However, we are referring to an untouched batted ball thats status has yet to be determined, by rule.

Are you suggesting that we now forbid any player from touching any batted ball along the line prior to reaching the base because it may or may not go fair or foul?

[youngump]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

What does "batting" have to do with this?

Ya know, this is the type of **** that screws things up and causes unnecessary confusion.

Folks, you need to stay on point. ASA has addressed this at clinics. Just as a defender can THROW a glove and hit a batted ball in foul territory to keep it from becoming fair, an offensive player may also do the same thing.

Easy there, Mike. I'm not causing unnecessary confusion I'm just trying to make sure I understand. There's lots of stuff in rule 7 that applies after the ball is hit.
7-6-K for example definitely applies to hitting the ball a second time.
And asking that question wasn't going to cloud things up for anybody, it was just an honest question. Not everybody is a troll looking to stir things up.