Trailing runner tagged out after lead runner is obstructed

[Dakota]

My initial thought (although I didn't post) was to consider R2 as a runner affected by the obstruction and award the bases. However, this part bugs me...

While it is true that in the umpire's judgment R2 would have scored had there been no obstruction, the obstruction did not cause R2 to not pay attention to where R1 was (or, presumably, the coaches) until it was too late and R2 was picked off.

Did obstruction cause R2 to not know where the ball was and where the preceding runner was? Does R2 get a free pass for such a base-running gaffe?

I get Steve's point of the defense not benefiting from the obstruction, but were they? Or were they benefiting from poor base-running by R2?

[jwwashburn]

Without the obstruction, that would have been good base running.

[AtlUmpSteve]

Originally Posted by Dakota

My initial thought (although I didn't post) was to consider R2 as a runner affected by the obstruction and award the bases. However, this part bugs me...

While it is true that in the umpire's judgment R2 would have scored had there been no obstruction, the obstruction did not cause R2 to not pay attention to where R1 was (or, presumably, the coaches) until it was too late and R2 was picked off.

Did obstruction cause R2 to not know where the ball was and where the preceding runner was? Does R2 get a free pass for such a base-running gaffe?

I get Steve's point of the defense not benefiting from the obstruction, but were they? Or were they benefiting from poor base-running by R2?

If we judge the protection at the time of the obstruction for the obstructed runner, why couldn't/shouldn't we also judge the protection afforded other affected runners?? Bad baserunning effectively is overrunning the protection, and needs to be treated as such; but if we judge in this play both runners would have scored if not for the roadblock created by the obstruction, no other decision could be stated to be negating the effects of the obstruction.

[CecilOne]

Originally Posted by Dakota

My initial thought (although I didn't post) was to consider R2 as a runner affected by the obstruction and award the bases. However, this part bugs me...

While it is true that in the umpire's judgment R2 would have scored had there been no obstruction, the obstruction did not cause R2 to not pay attention to where R1 was (or, presumably, the coaches) until it was too late and R2 was picked off.

Did obstruction cause R2 to not know where the ball was and where the preceding runner was? Does R2 get a free pass for such a base-running gaffe?

I get Steve's point of the defense not benefiting from the obstruction, but were they? Or were they benefiting from poor base-running by R2?

The "mistake " by R2 was caused by R1 still being at 3rd instead of home, result of the OBS.