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Old Fri May 04, 2012, 12:59pm
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I'd say that you have a runner hit by a batted ball and you need to apply all the usual rules that apply to such a runner.

Was the ball fair when touched?

Was the runner in contact with the base when the ball was touched?

Last edited by BretMan; Fri May 04, 2012 at 01:04pm.
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Old Fri May 04, 2012, 01:29pm
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Dead Ball, Runner out for interferance, Batter awarded 1st, other runners advace if forced.
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Old Fri May 04, 2012, 01:48pm
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I gave all the info they gave, but I think we should assume that yes - the ball was in fair territory. If you answer depends on whether the runner touched the base before the ball hit her, or vice versa, please state so.
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Old Fri May 04, 2012, 02:15pm
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Sounds familiar...
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Old Fri May 04, 2012, 02:53pm
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Since the defense gave up their opportunity to field the ball I have nothing, live ball.
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Old Fri May 04, 2012, 03:03pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MrRabbit View Post
Since the defense gave up their opportunity to field the ball I have nothing, live ball.
Ditto, unless you judge runner intensional made contact with the ball.
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Old Fri May 04, 2012, 04:06pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MrRabbit View Post
Since the defense gave up their opportunity to field the ball I have nothing, live ball.
I disagree, the rule state fielder fielding a batted ball. I don't have to rule on fielder's ability, only if the runner interfered (intentional or not) with the fielder's opportunity to field the ball.
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Old Fri May 04, 2012, 05:30pm
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+1
If fair, F5 must be given any opportunity to field the batted ball and make a play.

OP doesn't have enough info to provide a single answer.
Otherwise we will be twirling multiple scenarios in the world of "what if".
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