Decent question from softball dot com.

[MD Longhorn]

95% of their questions are simple. This one, actually, is not, and I suspect will generate an argument... here goes:

Runner at 2nd. The batter taps a slow grounder down the 3rd base line. The 3B has no chance to throw out the batter, so she allows the ball to roll, hoping it will go foul. The 3B stays behind 3rd, waiting for the ball to roll foul. When the runner slides into 3rd, she touches the ball. What's the call?

[RKBUmp]

Had she touched 3rd yet when she contacted the ball?

[BretMan]

I'd say that you have a runner hit by a batted ball and you need to apply all the usual rules that apply to such a runner.

Was the ball fair when touched?

Was the runner in contact with the base when the ball was touched?

[BuggBob]

Dead Ball, Runner out for interferance, Batter awarded 1st, other runners advace if forced.

[MD Longhorn]

I gave all the info they gave, but I think we should assume that yes - the ball was in fair territory. If you answer depends on whether the runner touched the base before the ball hit her, or vice versa, please state so.

[NCASAUmp]

Sounds familiar...

[MrRabbit]

Since the defense gave up their opportunity to field the ball I have nothing, live ball.

[roadking]

Originally Posted by MrRabbit

Since the defense gave up their opportunity to field the ball I have nothing, live ball.

Ditto, unless you judge runner intensional made contact with the ball.

[BuggBob]

Originally Posted by MrRabbit

Since the defense gave up their opportunity to field the ball I have nothing, live ball.

I disagree, the rule state fielder fielding a batted ball. I don't have to rule on fielder's ability, only if the runner interfered (intentional or not) with the fielder's opportunity to field the ball.

[tcannizzo]

+1
If fair, F5 must be given any opportunity to field the batted ball and make a play.

OP doesn't have enough info to provide a single answer.
Otherwise we will be twirling multiple scenarios in the world of "what if".

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

95% of their questions are simple. This one, actually, is not, and I suspect will generate an argument... here goes:

Runner at 2nd. The batter taps a slow grounder down the 3rd base line. The 3B has no chance to throw out the batter, so she allows the ball to roll, hoping it will go foul. The 3B stays behind 3rd, waiting for the ball to roll foul. When the runner slides into 3rd, she touches the ball. What's the call?

Add to issue, I know it states F5 stayed behind 3B, but was that the position the entire time, or did F3 come up and maybe allow the ball to roll pass and then retreat?

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Add to issue, I know it states F3 stayed behind 3B, but was that the position the entire time, or did F3 come up and maybe allow the ball to roll pass and then retreat?

How did the first baseman come all the way to 3rd to watch the ball go foul?

Must been a REALLY slow grounder.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

How did the first baseman come all the way to 3rd to watch the ball go foul?

Must been a REALLY slow grounder.

What, you've never seen a charging F3 chase the ball up the opposing foul line

Corrected, but if you think about it, what if the DID happen with F3? Would that have been considered the ball passing a fielder?

[Andy]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

95% of their questions are simple. This one, actually, is not, and I suspect will generate an argument... here goes:

Runner at 2nd. The batter taps a slow grounder down the 3rd base line. The 3B has no chance to throw out the batter, so she allows the ball to roll, hoping it will go foul. The 3B stays behind 3rd, waiting for the ball to roll foul. When the runner slides into 3rd, she touches the ball. What's the call?

Working with what is presented, the part that I bolded does not sound to me like a fielder attempting to field the ball and make a play. If ball was fair when it touched the runner, live ball, play on.

Yes, we need more detail to make an accurate ruling.

By chance, did this happen in the same game where the runner scored and contacted the ball that was about to roll foul?

[DaveASA/FED]

I don't disagree with the idea that F5 should have had time to make a play on that ball, but in NFHS rules isn't she still in the act of making an initial play on that batted ball?

Section 47 Art 3:Initial Play. A fielder is considered to be making an initial play on a fair batted ball when she:
a. Has a reasonable chance to gain control of a ground ball that no other fielder (except the pitcher) has touched.

The way the play was described it seems that fielder still had a resonable chance to gain control of that fair batted ball (again assumming it was still fair, if it was foul we just have a foul ball).

In ASA I think we would look at two rules, 8.7.J1: When a runner interferes:
1. With a fielder attempting to field a batted fair ball or a foul fly ball, or

I think you could agrue this as applicable....is that fielder attempting to let the ball go foul an attemp to field that batted ball? It's certainly a play on the ball...letting it go foul is a way to play that batted ball for sure. Am I stretching it some to say that's "attempting to field" the ball? Maybe but not sure...

Also rule 8.7.K would depend on what the fielder did, did they let the ball pass them then go back behind it to wait for it to go foul? Or did the ball always stay in front of them? And as others have said, if they were touching the base when they touched the ball, this one might not apply based on the answers to the above questions.

K. When a runner is struck with a fair untouched batted ball while not in contact with a base and before it passes another infielder excluding the pitcher, or if it passes an infielder and another fielder has an opportunity to make an out.
EFFECT: The ball is dead and the runner is out. All other runners must return
to the last base legally touched at the time of the interference.