Runs Scored

[SamG]

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

R1 scores. The out on R2 is not a force out, as a trailing runner (R3) had already been declared out.

You can never, ever have a force out on a runner when a runner who's trailing them has already been declared out.

But even if R2 IS a force out, the run (R1) would still score, wouldn't it? Let's change the situation a little...
Bases loaded, one out.
Ground ball to F6... she throws to F5 for the force on R2.
F5 sees R3 making it to 2nd, so tries to make a play on B/R at first.
B/R is safe and F3 throws back to F5 who tags R3 trying to steal.

There's still three outs and R1 still scores. So why does the timing matter (in the OP)? What am I missing?

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by SamG

But even if R2 IS a force out, the run (R1) would still score, wouldn't it?

Nope.

Originally Posted by SamG

Let's change the situation a little...
Bases loaded, one out.
Ground ball to F6... she throws to F5 for the force on R2.
F5 sees R3 making it to 2nd, so tries to make a play on B/R at first.
B/R is safe and F3 throws back to F5 who tags R3 trying to steal.

There's still three outs and R1 still scores. So why does the timing matter (in the OP)? What am I missing?

What difference does it make the order in which the outs were attempted?

ASA 5-5-B: No run shall be scored if the third out of the inning is the result of:
1. A batter-runner being called out prior to reaching first base or any other runner forced out due to the batter becoming a batter-runner.

They can throw the ball around all they want, but if the third out is a force out, no runs may score.

Make sense?

[SamG]

Originally Posted by NCASAUmp

Nope.



What difference does it make the order in which the outs were attempted?


They can throw the ball around all they want, but if the third out is a force out, no runs may score.

Make sense?

I understand that. I guess what I missed was how R2 missing the bag would be considered a 'force out', which from the PP, I understand it's not. It's only if it WAS a force out (and happened AFTER R3 was out, which is impossible) would the run not count.

OK, that sentence doesn't make total sense, but I think I understand.

[CecilOne]

Originally Posted by SamG

But even if R2 IS a force out, the run (R1) would still score, wouldn't it? Let's change the situation a little...
Bases loaded, one out.
Ground ball to F6... she throws to F5 for the force on R2.
F5 sees R3 making it to 2nd, so tries to make a play on B/R at first.
B/R is safe and F3 throws back to F5 who tags R3 trying to steal.

There's still three outs and R1 still scores. So why does the timing matter (in the OP)? What am I missing?

Yes, 3 outs, but in this scenario, the third out is not force or BR (tags R3 trying to steal); so the run scoring or not is determined by the timing of R1 getting to HP before the out or not.