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Old Sun May 18, 2003, 08:01am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Glen G
Who is to say that although the runner was obstructed going back to third without that obstruction they may have headed back to home and scored.

Just because at that time they were heading to third doesn't mean they didn't have an intention to score. Otherwise they wouldn't have been between home and third to begin with.

Opinions please!

Glen G
Because that is when the obstruction occured, returning to 3B and that is when you make your ruling.

Of course, the intention was to score, but they would not have scored. How do I know that? Because they wouldn't have ended up in a rundown if they could have scored!

Common sense. Read the rule, read the play which occurs and apply the rule only the the play you saw. Anything else requires tarot cards or tea leaves.

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