Interference question - does the run count?

[greymule]

ASA. I would have a hard time calling INT at all if (with R1 across the plate) the BR had actually reached 1B before R2 did whatever he did (grabbed F6's arm, stuck up his hand to block the throw, etc.). If R2 remained near 1B and swatted the throw an instant after the BR touched 1B, that's another story. But I can't see calling INT on R2 unless there's a reasonable excuse for a play somewhere.

On a play in a similar theoretical vein:

R1 on 3B, R2 on 2B, 1 out. B3 pops toward 1B. R1 thinks there are 2 outs and crosses the plate. The BR deliberately crashes F3 to prevent a double play.

The ruling is that the BR is out for INT, and R2 (the runner closest to home) is out.

But does R1's run count? (In other words, is the BR the second out and R2 the third, or are both outs simultaneous with the INT? Was the third out the BR before reaching 1B or R2 on a time play?)

Not that they care, but ASA's interp that a runner who crosses the plate before INT occurs on a fly ball is not the runner closest to home has always bothered me.

I don't know about Fed, but in NCAA, any INT before the BR reaches 1B returns all runners TOP.