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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 14, 2009, 06:55pm
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Intentional or not?

I was looking at the differences in runner interference between ASA and FED. I looked at the spreadsheet on Amateur Softball Association of America (ASA) and it says that interference with a thrown ball does not have to be intentional. However the FED rule book says....

The runner interferes:

d. intentionally with a fielder or thrown ball.

Now I interpret the "intentionally" to go with both phrases so it would read as "intentionally with a fielder or intentionally with a thrown ball". Is that not correct? Is it normal writing practice to apply a modifier to two phrases joined by an "or"?
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Old Tue Apr 14, 2009, 10:39pm
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With a little bit of Googling....I agree. The modifier is applied to BOTH nouns.
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Old Wed Apr 15, 2009, 08:23pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rwest View Post
[ASA] says that interference with a thrown ball does not have to be intentional.
Am I understanding this right? A runner in ASA can be out if accidentally interferring with a thrown ball?
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Old Wed Apr 15, 2009, 09:16pm
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Intent was removed

Quote:
Originally Posted by SC Ump View Post
Am I understanding this right? A runner in ASA can be out if accidentally interferring with a thrown ball?
I believe it was two years ago that intent was removed. All we need to judge is did the runner interfere. When the rule was changed there was some discussion in my association about this change. Basically the consensus was if the runner is doing what they are supposed to be doing (i.e. legally running the bases) we aren't going to penalize them if they get hit with the ball.
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