obstruction question

[scroobs]

r1 on 1st. b2 hits a ground ball to f6. r1 is obstructed by f3 on the way to second. f6 flips to f4 to force r1, who then throws to 1st for double play.
How would you call this action as a base ump?

[Dholloway1962]

Originally Posted by scroobs

r1 on 1st. b2 hits a ground ball to f6. r1 is obstructed by f3 on the way to second. f6 flips to f4 to force r1, who then throws to 1st for double play.
How would you call this action as a base ump?

When R1 was forced out, I have a dead ball (based on delayed dead ball). R1 is awarded 2nd and Batter-Runner gets first.

[scroobs]

thanks...do you always have a dead ball when an obstructed runner is put out between the bases that thet were obstructed?

[Dholloway1962]

Originally Posted by scroobs

thanks...do you always have a dead ball when an obstructed runner is put out between the bases that thet were obstructed?

Most of the time yes. There are exceptions unless the runner committed another violation and that violation is being played upon, ie missing a base or leaving to earlier on a caught fly ball. Also interference or passing another runner committed by the obstructed runner.

[LMSANS]

Signal DDB, "Obstruction",
"out",
"out",
"Time out" "Obstruction, R1 stays at 2b"
"1 out"

[Dholloway1962]

Originally Posted by LMSANS

Signal DDB, "Obstruction",
"out",
"out",
"Time out" "Obstruction, R1 stays at 2b"
"1 out"

Disagree LM. Once R1 was forced the ball is dead. No other play can occur. R1 at 2b, BR (or R2 at this point) at 1 B...no outs

[LMSANS]

Originally Posted by Dholloway1962

Disagree LM. Once R1 was forced the ball is dead. No other play can occur. R1 at 2b, BR (or R2 at this point) at 1 B...no outs

I sit corrected. Dholloway is correct, the ball becomes dead on the force out.

[Dholloway1962]

Originally Posted by LMSANS

I sit corrected. Dholloway is correct, the ball becomes dead on the force out.

Put this one in the record book...I got one right!!!

[scroobs]

Originally Posted by LMSANS

Signal DDB, "Obstruction",
"out",
"out",
"Time out" "Obstruction, R1 stays at 2b"
"1 out"

thanks guys for clearing this up...my clinition likes LMSANS prior view on the ruling, which confused me re: killing it when the out occured on OBS runner...

[CecilOne]

What if you judged that R1 would not have reached 2nd even w/o the OBS?

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by CecilOne

What if you judged that R1 would not have reached 2nd even w/o the OBS?

Doesn't matter in this case, since the ball went dead with the supposed force out, the BR gets 1B, forcing R1 to 2B.

[CecilOne]

Originally Posted by Dakota

Doesn't matter in this case, since the ball went dead with the supposed force out, the BR gets 1B, forcing R1 to 2B.

I was hoping someone less knowing would answer first, so I should have said so.
OK, how about OBS on R1 going to 2nd, BR out at 1st, then a tag play on R1? ITUJ, R1 somehow would not have reached 2nd, OBS or not.

Answer only if you have not seen snow in the past 2 weeks

[strike4]

Would you kill the play if you had a runner on 2b who is rounding 3b to score when the obs runner is called out at 2b?

[youngump]

Originally Posted by strike4

Would you kill the play if you had a runner on 2b who is rounding 3b to score when the obs runner is called out at 2b?

Yes. Then you decide if they would have scored and award them 3rd or home. The play is dead when an obstructed runner would otherwise be out for obstruction but is not because of that obstruction.
________
Vaporizerinfo

[DaveASA/FED]

Originally Posted by strike4

Would you kill the play if you had a runner on 2b who is rounding 3b to score when the obs runner is called out at 2b?

Yes and then award the runner or runners the bases they would have gotten had there been no OBS, so you can award that runner home if you feel they would have gotten it had there been no OBS.

Edit: Youngump must have been hitting submit when I was logging in...so I will say....ya what he said