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Old Tue Jan 22, 2008, 10:56pm
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Join Date: Apr 2005
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I didn't write my original post as coherently as I could have.

I guess what we were discussing is that since a runner can be guilty of interference with a fielder on a ball deflected off the pitcher-why is a runner automatically not guilty of interference if that ball hits her...it creates a situation where she is better off not trying very hard to avoid being hit by the ball.

Joe
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