Runner hit by batted ball after deflected by pitcher

[tiny]

Hello, playing Fed Rules here...

After a rules clinic, a scenario popped up (no pun intended). R1 on 1st, batter hits a line drive, hits the pitcher in the shoulder, deflects upward into the air and hits R1 in the noggin before hitting the ground or any other fielder. The clinician rules a dead ball, R1 out on runner interference because a batted ball hit him before it passed an infielder, batter awarded 1st.

I say that the ball is live, R1 is not out, because it hit the pitcher first. A case book example uses the umpire in the scenario, live ball ensues. But when I asked the clinician, he says the umpire and the runner are different when it comes to enforcing this rule.

I understand the ball must pass a fielder first other than the pitcher, but when the ball actually hits the pitcher, as in the case book example, shouldn't the runner be afforded the same rule book interpretation as an umpire stationed at B or C???

Opinions are welcome. Thank you!

[GarthB]

FED 5-1-1F
Ball becomes dead immediately, when...

a fair batted ball touches a runner or an umpire before TOUCHING ANY FIELDER (my emphasis), and before passing any fielder other than the pitcher.

Thus in your scenario, the ball has touched the pitcher, who is included as being "any fielder" before hitting the runner. Live ball. Play on.





[Edited by GarthB on Feb 19th, 2004 at 02:19 PM]

[tiny]

Thanks Garth, that was my argument when I looked up the rule...this particular individual does not include the pitcher as an infielder.

That's an example of of reading until you find what agrees with you but not reading the rest. Garth's right as were you. You "clinician" read some but not all.

[David B]

Originally posted by GarthB
FED 5-1-1F
Ball becomes dead immediately, when...

a fair batted ball touches a runner or an umpire before TOUCHING ANY FIELDER (my emphasis), and before passing any fielder other than the pitcher.

Thus in your scenario, the ball has touched the pitcher, who is included as being "any fielder" before hitting the runner. Live ball. Play on.

[Edited by GarthB on Feb 19th, 2004 at 02:19 PM]

I don't have my BRD with me, but isn't this a play that is different in OBR?

If the ball hits the pitcher and goes directly toward the runner then the runner is okay if he doesn't have an opportunity to get out of the way.

I had this play a few years back where it hit F1 and glanced off of R2 who did not have a chance to move. I remember looking up the rule and the runner was not out since the ball was deflected, and F4 and F6 would not have been able to field the ball.

However, if F6 or F4 would have a chance at the ball would not R2 be out?

Just trying to get my brain back in baseball gear.

Thanks
David

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by David B
I had this play a few years back where it hit F1 and glanced off of R2 who did not have a chance to move. I remember looking up the rule and the runner was not out since the ball was deflected, and F4 and F6 would not have been able to field the ball.

However, if F6 or F4 would have a chance at the ball would not R2 be out?

Once the ball is deflected, the runner is protected from interference (except intetntional) with the BALL. He can still interfere with a FIELDER who can make a play (i.e., is not just chasing after a loose ball).

[woolnojg]

R1 ruled out because he was hit by a batted ball, correct situation?

What batted ball? The only one struck by a batted ball is the pitcher. Everything after that is not a batted ball.