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Quote:

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

As anal as I can be, what do you think? :rolleyes: It was the call prescribed by the rules. The umpire did what the league pays her to do. As I said, it may have very well been overlooked had the defensive coach not raised the issue.

It was a rhetorical question!:)

Quote:

Originally Posted by bluezebra

Semantics. If a runner is allowed to "advance without liability to be put out", isn't that an 'award'?

Bob

Even if a player is awarded a base, I don't believe that absolves them from the responsibilty of properly completing their base running duties. If the OP, the runner, although awarded first base, did not properly complete her base running responsibilities. Since the BR did not successfully reach first base before being declared out, the run can't score.

I understand what you are saying, I just don't agree with it.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Mountaineer

It was a rhetorical question!:)

What if there were no rhetorical questions? ;)

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dakota

What if there were no rhetorical questions? ;)

hmmmmmm, was that a . . . ahhh, nevermind!

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dakota

What if there were no rhetorical questions? ;)

Hey Dakota,

You come up with some funny stuff! :) :D ...Several on the board do from time to time, but IMO you're a notch or two above all. Keep adding some smiles :) to the board because it has a way of breaking down some friction among the good group of guys and ladies posting here. ..Nothin' like fun at the ole' ball park! .Al

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dakota

Once you revealed this was professional ball, I was wondering about something like this.

It is certainly not a call that "sells" the game - to the casual fan, it would appear to be a bit arcane or technical, and it takes away the "obvious win."

MLB used to have a tradition to ignore this kind of situation, until it was actually called in a fairly important game - maybe even a world series??? I don't remember the details... even though I think they were posted here or one of the other umpire boards fairly recently.

I can recall when Mark McGuire broke the HR record (not to open another can of worms :eek: ) and, when celebrating at first base, was directed by the first base coach with a point (and a push?) to touch the base.

Not softball, but certainly a parallel situation. Was he 'assisted' to the base that he may have otherwise missed? I know that it wasn't called nor any objections registered by the defense.

I will say that, IMO, the call was correct. NPF follows NCAA rules with some modifications.

Rule 9, Sec10d - Coach Interference: A coach or anyone other than another runner... may not physically assist (e.g., touch, hold, push) a base runner while the ball is in play.

OP = bases loaded walk (ball is in play) and a player touches (forget about possibly directs/pushes) the BR to advance to first.

Quote:

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Because there are people out there, including umpires, that honestly believe that such a declaration is like a judge striking a gavel.

Way off topic, but that's adding myth to myth.

I've been an attorney for going on eighteen years now, spending nearly every working day of that time in the criminal courts.

In all that time, I've seen a judge strike a gavel exactly once. And that was to quiet down spectators. Most courtrooms I've been in don't even have gavels on the bench. At least in central Illinois, judges don't gavel cases open or closed any more.

Just FYI.