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Old Fri May 26, 2006, 05:07pm
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The interpretation, as I understand it, Ernie, is that F1 is not yet a pitcher as long as runners are required to advance on the batted ball; F1 has the same status as any other defensive player in this case, one who is making a play (sooner or later, in this case).

Using that interpretation, the LBR cannot yet be in affect in this case. In the other play, no runner is required to advance.

Similarly, when F1 fields a batted ball, she is not immediately a pitcher; there is a presumption that runners that must advance, may, and runners that must return, may.
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