Quote:
|
Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA
No. The action caused by a batted ball has yet to be resolved.
|
Mike, that seems to conflict with the verbiage in the LBR. “..will be in effect when the ball is live for all runners , the BR has touched 1B and F1 has possession…in the circle”.
It does not say “until all runners have reached the base to which forced or have been put out”.
So if the LBR is in effect, and R1 is on a base (the base she is being forced to vacate) when F1 receives the ball in the circle then R1 cannot per 8-7-T-2 leave that base.
I understand the logic that since the runner never ran, the play is not over. But the rules seem to have this runner trapped. The way the words read, it sounds like R1 must now wait for the defense to begin making a play on her before she tries to advance to avoid the LBR.
Is the interpretation basically that R1 is not “on a base” if she is standing on a base she is forced to vacate? But then if that is true you could call her out for standing on the base she needs to vacate on an LBR violation as soon as the ball is in the circle and the runner is not running.
In the other “2 runners on one base” play with two runners on 2B, where there was no force and F1 has the ball in the circle then the trail runner decides to run back to 1B we had determined that would be an LBR out. Why are these two different under the LBR?