Dropped third strike interference?

[WestMichBlue]

Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve

There is a baseball mindset that you don't penalize the offense if the situation was created by the defense failing to make a play. There is no softball rules basis to ignore a rule that applies if the defense first didn't make a possible play.

Good point for a general rule, and specifically for the OP here. However . . . .

For years umpires have used the common sense application of a "step and a reach" to determine whether or not to protect a defender from interference when they bobbled the first attempt to field a batted ball. When a pitcher boots a ground ball towards the 1B line, chases it and collides with the B-R, obstruction (penality on the defense) is going to be your call. A couple years ago NFHS hard coded that into their rulebook.

Also, for many years ASA and NCAA have not protected a second fielder from interference after the initial defender deflected a batted ball. NFHS also has that rule now.

So there are situations when a defender fails to execute a play, they are not protected from subsequent interference by an offensive player.

WMB

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by WestMichBlue

For years umpires have used the common sense application of a "step and a reach" to determine whether or not to protect a defender from interference when they bobbled the first attempt to field a batted ball. When a pitcher boots a ground ball towards the 1B line, chases it and collides with the B-R, obstruction (penality on the defense) is going to be your call. A couple years ago NFHS hard coded that into their rulebook.

Also, for many years ASA and NCAA have not protected a second fielder from interference after the initial defender deflected a batted ball. NFHS also has that rule now.

So there are situations when a defender fails to execute a play, they are not protected from subsequent interference by an offensive player.

WMB

And since this thread seems to be moving somewhat off the path , let me add that in ASA, this (INT on a deflected ball) is one of the few rules remaining where the INT needs to or appear to be intentional. And before someone jumps in here with the "how am I supposed to read the runner's mind" BS, it is the umpire's job to make a judgment and in my past, I've not had a problem determining intent.

[tcannizzo]

There is a major difference between a batted ball and U3K.

B1 hits a ball that is slowly rolling along the 1B line in foul territory with a good possibility of going fair. B1 kicks ball while ball is in foul territory. There is no penalty on B1. It is a foul ball. Even if everyone in the park knew it was intentional.

The ball is completley "in play" on U3K regardless of fair or foul. So any hinderance of the ball or a play on the ball by B1 would be INT.