Obstruction

whiskers_ump · #27 (**permalink**) Wed Jan 12, 2005, 10:23am

Quote:

Originally posted by mcrowder

Quote:

Originally posted by jstark23
Mccrowder, not anymore, Glen is right
straight from the fed rule book, page 62 Rule 8-4-3b1 Exception (1) when an obstructed runner after the obstruction, safely obtains or returns to the base she would have been awarded, in the umpire's judgment, had there been no obstruction and there is a subsequent play on a different runner, the obstructed runner is no longer protected between the bases where she was obstructed runner is no longer protected between the bases where she was obstructed and may be put out.

But the runner in this scenario DID NOT safely obtain or return to the base she would have been awarded (1st base). This runner, I believe, is still protected.

mcrowder,

If you are speaking of this play that was added to the originial
question.

Now what if R2 is never tagged and never reaches 1st when returning (R1 dives in the dirt but comes up short, F3 dosn't apply the tag). R1 is put out trying to advance and R2 is subsequently put out trying to advance as well.

Which I think you are, then look at how it was presented.

R2 on 1st has been attempted to be put out by pickoff, she returns without
being tagged, nor touching 1B, [who cares if she did/did not touch at this
point]. In describing the dive back, KJ used R1, who is on 2B. Then
KJ said R1 is put out trying to advance, where I am sure he meant R2
out trying to advance to 3B, then R1 subsequently put out trying to
advance to 2B while defense is making the play on R2 at 3B. So
since there was no tag, ball still alive, subsequent play made on
different runner, obstructed runner no longer protected since she
reached the base you would have granted anyway.

Hell, now I am confused.

For the original post, mine, no outs occured on that play.