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Wed May 12, 2004, 10:31am
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"The failure of the Umpire to make the announcement of protest shall not affect the validity of the protest".
But doesn't this addendum makes sense? If an umpire wanted to avoid having a protest heard, or assure it's outcome, and intentionally failed to notify opposing team or scorekeeper, would that be proper? Yes I know some umpires that may be inclined to do that. Would this failure also be a "protestable situation"? I think Dixie was right on this one. 
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