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Fri Feb 20, 2004, 03:18pm
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We recently discussed a play in which a runner deliberately passes another runner to ensure that the third out of an inning is not a force play.
Have we ever gone over deliberate interference? Abel on 3B, Baker on 2B, Charles on 1B, 1 out. Daniels, a slow runner, hits a hard one-hopper to F6 and falls down as he is leaving the batter's box. F6 steps on 2B for the force out on Charles and, seeing that Daniels is far from 1B, decides to take his time for an easy throw to 1B for the double-play. Abel scores. Charles then catches the throw to 1B. Do you go by the book and call Baker, the runner closest to home, out? If so, the run will score. Or do you consider the DP complete at 1B so that the run is nullified? __________________
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greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide! 
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Fri Feb 20, 2004, 03:46pm
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Speaking ASA, the rule (8-7P - 2003) requires intent to interfere by the retired runner. It doesn't specify what the reasoning was (if any) behind that intent. I say go by the book. Run scores, but inning over.
You can't use 8-7J-4a (intentionally trying to prevent a double play) since that rule specifically requires that the interference be before the runner is put out. This rule would, however, allow you to declare the BR out, nullifying the run. Even 10-1L doesn't apply, since that rule only gives you the option of not applying the penalty at all - it doesn't give you the option of making up your own penalty.
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Tom
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Fri Feb 20, 2004, 03:48pm
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Quote:
I'll stay with the book. Assuming Baker reached 3B prior to the interference, the run will score. There is nothing in the rule book which instructs me to allow anything else. And before you go to 10.1.L, that tells me that I can not penalize a team if that penalty creates an advantage for the offending team. It doesn't say I may alter the effect of a rules violation to suit my beliefs.
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The bat issue in softball is as much about liability, insurance and litigation as it is about competition, inflated egos and softball.
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Fri Feb 20, 2004, 04:03pm
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What difference does it make whether Baker has made it to 3rd or not. Since Charles was already put out, the force on Baker as off anyway. SamC
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Fri Feb 20, 2004, 04:05pm
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Assuming Baker reached 3B prior to the interference, the run will score.
I don't understand this stipulation.
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greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide!
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Fri Feb 20, 2004, 05:29pm
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Quote:
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Officiating takes more than OJT. It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be.
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Sat Feb 21, 2004, 09:30am
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If Baker does not reach 3rd at the time of the interference, that would make Baker the runner closest to home. If the final out of the inning did not attain the base to which they were forced safely, than the final out is a force out, no runs score. Second thought My bad, missed the play at 2B relieving the force on Baker. As Rosie Rosanna Donna once said "Nevermind"!
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The bat issue in softball is as much about liability, insurance and litigation as it is about competition, inflated egos and softball.
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Tue Feb 24, 2004, 10:47am
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Confused here, too.
How does the run score if the third out of the inning was by the batter-runner before reaching first base?
I'm a FED guy. Does ASA have a different rule on this?
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"Not all heroes have time to pose for sculptors...some still have papers to grade."
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Tue Feb 24, 2004, 10:55am
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Re: Confused here, too.
Quote:
Since the third out was not a force out, and happend after R1 crossed home, run scores.
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Tom
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