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greymule Fri Feb 20, 2004 03:18pm

We recently discussed a play in which a runner deliberately passes another runner to ensure that the third out of an inning is not a force play.

Have we ever gone over deliberate interference?

Abel on 3B, Baker on 2B, Charles on 1B, 1 out. Daniels, a slow runner, hits a hard one-hopper to F6 and falls down as he is leaving the batter's box. F6 steps on 2B for the force out on Charles and, seeing that Daniels is far from 1B, decides to take his time for an easy throw to 1B for the double-play. Abel scores. Charles then catches the throw to 1B.

Do you go by the book and call Baker, the runner closest to home, out? If so, the run will score.

Or do you consider the DP complete at 1B so that the run is nullified?
__________________

Dakota Fri Feb 20, 2004 03:46pm

Speaking ASA, the rule (8-7P - 2003) requires intent to interfere by the retired runner. It doesn't specify what the reasoning was (if any) behind that intent. I say go by the book. Run scores, but inning over.

You can't use 8-7J-4a (intentionally trying to prevent a double play) since that rule specifically requires that the interference be before the runner is put out. This rule would, however, allow you to declare the BR out, nullifying the run.

Even 10-1L doesn't apply, since that rule only gives you the option of not applying the penalty at all - it doesn't give you the option of making up your own penalty.

IRISHMAFIA Fri Feb 20, 2004 03:48pm

Quote:

Originally posted by greymule
We recently discussed a play in which a runner deliberately passes another runner to ensure that the third out of an inning is not a force play.

Have we ever gone over deliberate interference?

Abel on 3B, Baker on 2B, Charles on 1B, 1 out. Daniels, a slow runner, hits a hard one-hopper to F6 and falls down as he is leaving the batter's box. F6 steps on 2B for the force out on Charles and, seeing that Daniels is far from 1B, decides to take his time for an easy throw to 1B for the double-play. Abel scores. Charles then catches the throw to 1B.

Do you go by the book and call Baker, the runner closest to home, out? If so, the run will score.

Or do you consider the DP complete at 1B so that the run is nullified?
__________________

Speaking ASA.

I'll stay with the book. Assuming Baker reached 3B prior to the interference, the run will score. There is nothing in the rule book which instructs me to allow anything else. And before you go to 10.1.L, that tells me that I can not penalize a team if that penalty creates an advantage for the offending team. It doesn't say I may alter the effect of a rules violation to suit my beliefs.


Dakota Fri Feb 20, 2004 03:50pm

Mike... we crossed in the ether... I like your response, though! :D

SamNVa Fri Feb 20, 2004 04:03pm

Quote:

Originally posted by IRISHMAFIA
Quote:

Originally posted by greymule
We recently discussed a play in which a runner deliberately passes another runner to ensure that the third out of an inning is not a force play.

Have we ever gone over deliberate interference?

Abel on 3B, Baker on 2B, Charles on 1B, 1 out. Daniels, a slow runner, hits a hard one-hopper to F6 and falls down as he is leaving the batter's box. F6 steps on 2B for the force out on Charles and, seeing that Daniels is far from 1B, decides to take his time for an easy throw to 1B for the double-play. Abel scores. Charles then catches the throw to 1B.

Do you go by the book and call Baker, the runner closest to home, out? If so, the run will score.

Or do you consider the DP complete at 1B so that the run is nullified?
__________________

Speaking ASA.

I'll stay with the book. Assuming Baker reached 3B prior to the interference, the run will score. There is nothing in the rule book which instructs me to allow anything else. And before you go to 10.1.L, that tells me that I can not penalize a team if that penalty creates an advantage for the offending team. It doesn't say I may alter the effect of a rules violation to suit my beliefs.


Mike,

What difference does it make whether Baker has made it to 3rd or not. Since Charles was already put out, the force on Baker as off anyway.

SamC

greymule Fri Feb 20, 2004 04:05pm

<b>Assuming Baker reached 3B prior to the interference, the run will score.</b>

I don't understand this stipulation.

CecilOne Fri Feb 20, 2004 05:29pm

Quote:

Originally posted by greymule
<b>Assuming Baker reached 3B prior to the interference, the run will score.</b>

I don't understand this stipulation.

Me either.

IRISHMAFIA Sat Feb 21, 2004 09:30am

Quote:

Originally posted by SamNVa
Quote:

Originally posted by IRISHMAFIA
Quote:

Originally posted by greymule
We recently discussed a play in which a runner deliberately passes another runner to ensure that the third out of an inning is not a force play.

Have we ever gone over deliberate interference?

Abel on 3B, Baker on 2B, Charles on 1B, 1 out. Daniels, a slow runner, hits a hard one-hopper to F6 and falls down as he is leaving the batter's box. F6 steps on 2B for the force out on Charles and, seeing that Daniels is far from 1B, decides to take his time for an easy throw to 1B for the double-play. Abel scores. Charles then catches the throw to 1B.

Do you go by the book and call Baker, the runner closest to home, out? If so, the run will score.

Or do you consider the DP complete at 1B so that the run is nullified?
__________________

Speaking ASA.

I'll stay with the book. Assuming Baker reached 3B prior to the interference, the run will score. There is nothing in the rule book which instructs me to allow anything else. And before you go to 10.1.L, that tells me that I can not penalize a team if that penalty creates an advantage for the offending team. It doesn't say I may alter the effect of a rules violation to suit my beliefs.


Mike,

What difference does it make whether Baker has made it to 3rd or not. Since Charles was already put out, the force on Baker as off anyway.

SamC

Original thought

If Baker does not reach 3rd at the time of the interference, that would make Baker the runner closest to home. If the final out of the inning did not attain the base to which they were forced safely, than the final out is a force out, no runs score.

Second thought

My bad, missed the play at 2B relieving the force on Baker.

As Rosie Rosanna Donna once said "Nevermind"!


TwoBits Tue Feb 24, 2004 10:47am

Confused here, too.
 
How does the run score if the third out of the inning was by the batter-runner before reaching first base?

I'm a FED guy. Does ASA have a different rule on this?

Dakota Tue Feb 24, 2004 10:55am

Re: Confused here, too.
 
Quote:

Originally posted by TwoBits
How does the run score if the third out of the inning was by the batter-runner before reaching first base?

I'm a FED guy. Does ASA have a different rule on this?

It doesn't, but the third out here is NOT on the BR. The BR arrives at first safely due to the interference, but the interference rule declares the runner closest to home out, not the runner the defender was trying to put out.

Since the third out was not a force out, and happend after R1 crossed home, run scores.


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