Passer over the LOS

[referee20]

QB goes past the LOS and completes a pass, seconds after he releases the ball he gets hit hard by a defensive player. Can you have roughing the passer when the passer throws an illegal forward pass. Offsetting fouls?

[FTVMartin]

No, he became a runner when he crossed the line, but you can still have a personal foul.

[JasonTX]

For NCAA this was a new change for this year. Starting this year it will still be a foul for roughing.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by referee20

QB goes past the LOS and completes a pass, seconds after he releases the ball he gets hit hard by a defensive player. Can you have roughing the passer when the passer throws an illegal forward pass. Offsetting fouls?

For NFHS, as stated, this cannot be roughing the passer: a passer by definition has thrown a legal forward pass. If you judge it to be a late hit or other personal foul, you could flag that.

If you flag a PF on the defense, yes, the penalties would offset: replay the down.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by FTVMartin

No, he became a runner when he crossed the line, but you can still have a personal foul.

This is technically not correct. He was a runner all along, since he was a player in possession of the ball. And, at the time of contact, he is NOT in fact a runner, because he did not possess the ball.

He cannot be roughed because by rule he is not a passer. A passer has thrown a legal forward pass. Throwing an illegal forward pass leaves a player unprotected by the roughing provisions.

You are absolutely correct that a late or other illegal hit could still be flagged as a personal foul.

[Robert Goodman]

Originally Posted by referee20

QB goes past the LOS and completes a pass, seconds after he releases the ball he gets hit hard by a defensive player. Can you have roughing the passer when the passer throws an illegal forward pass. Offsetting fouls?

If it was seconds after he released the ball, it can't be roughing the passer. It could be unnecessary roughness on general principles.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Robert Goodman

If it was seconds after he released the ball, it can't be roughing the passer.

Sure it can be. He's a passer and protected until the pass ends or he moves to participate in the play. 2-32-11

[Robert Goodman]

Originally Posted by mbyron

Sure it can be. He's a passer and protected until the pass ends or he moves to participate in the play. 2-32-11

I suppose if it was a pass that was in the air for seconds.

[HLin NC]

And a deep post pattern wouldn't be in the air a few seconds? A sideline out route off the opposite hash?

[Robert Goodman]

Originally Posted by HLin NC

And a deep post pattern wouldn't be in the air a few seconds? A sideline out route off the opposite hash?

Who said it couldn't?

[Forksref]

Originally Posted by FTVMartin

No, he became a runner when he crossed the line, but you can still have a personal foul.

Good reason to carry 2 flags.

[JugglingReferee]

Originally Posted by referee20

QB goes past the LOS and completes a pass, seconds after he releases the ball he gets hit hard by a defensive player. Can you have roughing the passer when the passer throws an illegal forward pass. Offsetting fouls?

CANADIAN RULING:

Once the passer crosses the LS, he is a ball carrier. If there is a UR, it is just a regular UR, and not UR/Passer.

So no, you cannot have roughing the passer and an IFP in this case.

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by Robert Goodman

If it was seconds after he released the ball, it can't be roughing the passer. It could be unnecessary roughness on general principles.

Originally Posted by Robert Goodman

Who said it couldn't?

Your comments are suggesting that after a few seconds is what would be the determining factor of being able to call RTP. That is why mbyron referenced 2-32-11 in response to your comments.

Peace

[Robert Goodman]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

Your comments are suggesting that after a few seconds is what would be the determining factor of being able to call RTP. That is why mbyron referenced 2-32-11 in response to your comments.

Duh, my comments were before 2-32-11 was referenced. If my comment was in response to mbyron's, then you could say it was suggesting that.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Robert Goodman

Duh, my comments were before 2-32-11 was referenced. If my comment was in response to mbyron's, then you could say it was suggesting that.

Much backward read?

No... you said, "If it was seconds after he released the ball, it can't be roughing the passer." implying that "seconds" is the determining factor... which it's not. That's why mb quoted the correct rule - to contradict your incorrect assertion.