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Old Fri Sep 19, 2008, 06:44am
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Originally Posted by OverAndBack View Post
Had a play recently that's been bugging me.

A10 runs a square-out and has his back to the goal line as the quarterback throws him the ball. B9 hits A10 from the back (right side of the back), coming through him and then making a near-interception on the ball. Pass incomplete.

DPI?

One of the things our association gave us on certain philosophies is that there has to be an "obvious intent to impede" for it to be DPI and that contact isn't necessarily DPI.

Our white hat said the umpire got it right, I'm just curious as to what your philosophy is (I know you didn't see the play, I tried to describe it as best I could).
Playing through the back is one the keys for a PI. For this key, we tend to use: if the contact occurs so close to the ball getting there, that I can't tell what happened first, then I have no foul.

I'm not certain that I that I like the phrase "obvious intent to impede". I don't believe that any player goes out there to obviously intend to impede an opponent, as players should know that such action would be a flag.

They know that their job is to prevent a catch. A sure-fire way to do that is to catch the ball yourself, or knock it away from the opponent. To do that, players often play the odds that the ball won't go through a receivers hands and into their direction, but rather desire to be in the line of the pass before the ball gets to the intended receiver. They can do that, but not through an opponent's back.

Say that a cornerback just has bad timing, and "gets there early" by going through the back of an opponent. Do you really believe that that player had an intent to impede his opponent? I don't - I just think he sucked at timing on that play.

Wouldn't an obvious intent to impede have to be called intentional pass interference, and doesn't that carry it's own, more severe, foul?
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Old Fri Sep 19, 2008, 07:45am
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Originally Posted by JugglingReferee View Post
Wouldn't an obvious intent to impede have to be called intentional pass interference, and doesn't that carry it's own, more severe, foul?
That's what I thought! DPI, if intentional (and you'd have to have a really severe, basketball-like dragdown I think, to make that call), it's an additional 15, correct?

On the play in question (which I'd like to see again on video if I can get it), it wasn't so close in timing that you couldn't tell which happened first. Contact (and not just a little bump) from the back and side first, coming throught the receiver, then contact with the ball.
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Old Fri Sep 19, 2008, 07:54am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by OverAndBack View Post
That's what I thought! DPI, if intentional (and you'd have to have a really severe, basketball-like dragdown I think, to make that call), it's an additional 15, correct?
We went through Intentional DPI on one of the forums not too long ago. I believe the consensus was - short of a weapon being pulled it's not being called.
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Old Fri Sep 19, 2008, 08:06am
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That would be my guess. It would have to be pretty bad.
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