double foul after COP

[JugglingReferee]

Originally Posted by ABO77

B got the ball with "clean hands" so they can keep the ball as long as they decline all of A's fouls. It does not matter when A fouls, only that B got the ball without a foul. The foul by B will be enforced if they want the ball. If B accepts any of A's fouls it will be a double foul, replay down.

So.........

A can foul after B holds without penalty then? One of these must be true:

• If B has to decline the all A penalties to keep the ball, then A can, without repercussion, foul after B's clean hands possession of the ball.
• If B has to decline the all A penalties to keep the ball, then A can, without repercussion, foul after B's hold after clean hands possession of the ball.

If true, how is it fair that A can foul without penalty?

Robert, you are well versed in football history and its variances; any comments?