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Originally Posted by ABO77
B got the ball with "clean hands" so they can keep the ball as long as they decline all of A's fouls. It does not matter when A fouls, only that B got the ball without a foul. The foul by B will be enforced if they want the ball. If B accepts any of A's fouls it will be a double foul, replay down.
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So.........
A can foul after B holds without penalty then? One of these must be true:
- If B has to decline the all A penalties to keep the ball, then A can, without repercussion, foul after B's clean hands possession of the ball.
- If B has to decline the all A penalties to keep the ball, then A can, without repercussion, foul after B's hold after clean hands possession of the ball.
If true, how is it fair that A can foul without penalty?
Robert, you are well versed in football history and its variances; any comments?