[MJT]

Originally Posted by JugglingReferee

So.........

A can foul after B holds without penalty then? One of these must be true:

• If B has to decline the all A penalties to keep the ball, then A can, without repercussion, foul after B's clean hands possession of the ball.
• If B has to decline the all A penalties to keep the ball, then A can, without repercussion, foul after B's hold after clean hands possession of the ball.

If true, how is it fair that A can foul without penalty?

Robert, you are well versed in football history and its variances; any comments?

Because B gets to keep the ball. ABO is correct in his post.

JR, how else do you see this playing out and B gets to keep the ball?