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Fri Oct 20, 2006, 12:39pm
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Fedex, that sounds very logical. I was not arguing to apply momentum exception or not, merely questioning what appears to me to be a gap in the rules.
If you have a steal of the ball there is obviously a change of possession, but the ball was never loose according to the original play description. That was the point of the post I think. Without a loose ball how can the momentum execption apply? What rule are you applying to place the ball at the B2? 
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