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If he stops wouldn't he be assuming a new position as a back? If he started moving again without resetting that would be an Ill. shift, correct? this is similar to a question that was on the Part 2 Fed exam this year.
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Only thing I can think of that makes ANY sense out of what you just said would be a player initially on the line stepping back must establish himself as a back by resetting before moving in motion. The guy in the OP was ALREADY a back, and would not need to reset. (And even if there is a bizarre FED rule I'm unaware of, which is completely possible, that would require a second at the set position if he stopped ... in the OP, the player DIDN'T stop (at least according to O Poster).
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"Many baseball fans look upon an umpire as a sort of necessary evil to the luxury of baseball, like the odor that follows an automobile." - Hall of Fame Pitcher Christy Mathewson |
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OK, here is the question
After Team A has been set for at least one second, it is a foul if back A1 moves to a new backfiekd position abd sets for less then one second before the snap. (Answer is True) This is what I was thinking of when I asked the question. If he goes in motion and stops wouldn't that be considered a new backfield position? And if he went in motion again before setting for 1 second it would be a foul? Don't get me wrong, I don't think I would call this but by rule wouldit be a foul? |
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Bob M. |
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