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B1 implies the primary defender, so it is not a stretch to ask the question ballgame did (even if he screwed up the terminology). If an official does not know that a basket is good in this situation, then it is not implausible that the official doesn't know the difference between a flagrant foul and a technical foul. Once A1 is in his shooting motion, why would ANY foul by the defense negate the basket?
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