Originally Posted by Adam (Post 959778)

Not only do they not have such a cite, they don't even have a cite to indicate they're even possibly right. Personally, I think it falls under the unintended advantage clause, but this isn't a major issue, IMO.

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef (Post 959780)

And I have no problem with any official having that outlook on the play. My opinion about play-calling is that you only call what you can explain. Make the call, and if the coach asks, be willing to confidently say that's why you made the call. But some folks here acts as if there is some black-and-white reference that makes such an interpretation an absolute.

Originally Posted by Jay R (Post 959734)

And as these responses prove, common sense doesn't always kick in. Here the official calls a player control foul which no one questions. The game continues smoothly. Imagine no calling that play and then saying to the coach it's a no call because he used to "ball" to push off. The game does not continue smoothly.

You can say that I'm ignoring the rule, but I am following the spirit of the rule.

Originally Posted by AremRed (Post 959874)

100% agree. I had a play this year that would have been a blocking foul had the ball not been between the players. I no called it and my game did not continue smoothly.

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef (Post 959875)

So you feel as if you should have called a block even though the contact was with the ball?

Originally Posted by AremRed (Post 959882)

Yep, I do.

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef (Post 959875)

So you feel as if you should have called a block even though the contact was with the ball?

Originally Posted by AremRed (Post 959882)

Yep, I do.

Originally Posted by JRutledge (Post 959922)

There was a lot of contact with the shoulder and arm, not the ball.

Good PC foul BTW.

Peace

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef (Post 959931)

Not even sure if the ball ever did touch the defender. If it did ...

Originally Posted by ODog (Post 959946)

Seriously?

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef (Post 959947)

Uh, yeah, seriously. :rolleyes:

He contacts the defender with the entirety of his right arm, including the back of his right hand. There is a perfect shot of it around the 17 second mark. Do you think his right hand disappeared somehow when he made the move? He is pressing the ball into his right hand with his left hand. He never puts the ball in front, it stays behind his right hand.

Originally Posted by just another ref (Post 959987)

I agree that there is contact with the forearm and the back of the hand. But are you saying that if he drops the right arm and has the ball in only the left hand here and gives the same shove you would have a no call?