Iowa State-West Virginia

[ballgame99]

Originally Posted by BatteryPowered

Since when do intentions come into play? Rarely does a player "intend" to commit a foul...it happens, but most are just normally occuring during the course of play.

I also do not care about the momentum of a player. Suppose A1 is running down the floor full speed toward B1 who clearly has LGP standing (NOT MOVING) half way between the FT line and the basket. A1 leaps into the air and releases a finger roll attempt then plows into B1. Are you going to ignore the contact? Clearly the momentum of A1 carried him through the air and into the stationary B1.

I would say "intentions" come into play when you are calling an "intentional" foul typically. Now I realize an NCAA FF1 is different to an NFHS intentional, so you are probably right as it relates to an NCAA FF1. I'm honestly not aware what all that rule covers. Maybe intentions is a bad term, I'm saying it wasn't reckless, but was just a consequence of a hustle play gone wrong. Whether I should consider that or not may be a good question. The officials here went to replay and called it a FF1, so I'm probably wrong. That's just what I see.

And I'm not saying the momentum excuses the foul at all. In fact I clearly said it was a foul. I'm just saying his momentum took his foot where it wasn't supposed to go vs. him kicking someone. Again I was getting more to the intention aspect of it all. In a HS game do I have rules justification to call that an "intentional" foul? I don't know, I'm asking.