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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Feb 04, 2014, 01:48pm
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Who gives the ball backcourt status? A1 does.

Backcourt violation.

Don't we do this argument every year? Until the interpretation changes, I'm not ruling any differently.
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Old Tue Feb 04, 2014, 02:03pm
APG APG is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toren View Post
Who gives the ball backcourt status? A1 does.

Backcourt violation.

Don't we do this argument every year? Until the interpretation changes, I'm not ruling any differently.
A1 giving the ball a backcourt status is not a violation.
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Old Tue Feb 04, 2014, 02:14pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by APG View Post
A1 giving the ball a backcourt status is not a violation.
I don't recall saying Backcourt Status Violation.
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Old Tue Feb 04, 2014, 02:20pm
APG APG is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Toren View Post
I don't recall saying Backcourt Status Violation.
Forgive me if I read this wrong, but it sounded like you're justifying the interpretation when you asked and answered who give the ball a backcourt status.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toren View Post
Who gives the ball backcourt status? A1 does.

Backcourt violation.
The violation has never been for A1 giving the ball a backcourt status...if that were true, then A1 simply throwing the ball into the backcourt would be a violation as soon as the ball hit in the backcourt.
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Old Tue Feb 04, 2014, 02:29pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by APG View Post
Forgive me if I read this wrong, but it sounded like you're justifying the interpretation when you asked and answered who give the ball a backcourt status.
I was mostly playing word games.

I don't get paid enough to justify the interpretation.

But the interpretation is there and I don't see any reason to ignore it.


Incidentally, Art Hyland, John Adams and Peter Webb have all said the interpretation is correct.

Last edited by Toren; Tue Feb 04, 2014 at 02:36pm.
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Old Tue Feb 04, 2014, 02:35pm
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We've been discussing this for so long I don't remember but did this interpretation ever make it to the case book?
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Old Tue Feb 04, 2014, 02:41pm
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Originally Posted by Welpe View Post
We've been discussing this for so long I don't remember but did this interpretation ever make it to the case book?
No.
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Old Tue Feb 04, 2014, 02:47pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Welpe View Post
We've been discussing this for so long I don't remember but did this interpretation ever make it to the case book?
No, they didn't put that play in the casebook. But, they added this one where they made a point to state that the ball hit the floor first. Seems to me that they could have just as easily cleaned up the wording ...

*9.9.1 SITUATION C: A1 is dribbling in his/her backcourt and throws a pass to the frontcourt. While standing in A’s frontcourt: (a) A2 or (b) B3 touches the ball and deflects it back to A’s backcourt where it touches the floor. A2 recovers in the backcourt. RULING: In (a), it is a violation. The ball was in control of A1 and Team A, and a player from A was the last to touch the ball in frontcourt and a player of A was the first to touch it after it returned to the back court. In (b), legal play. A Team A player was not the last to touch the ball in the frontcourt. Team A is entitled to a new 10-second count.
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Old Tue Feb 04, 2014, 03:08pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by APG View Post
if that were true, then A1 simply throwing the ball into the backcourt would be a violation as soon as the ball hit in the backcourt.
Perhaps it should be! Wouldn't it all be a lot easier to rewrite the whole mess such that if the ball is in the frontcourt, and A causes it to touch the ground behind the halfcourt line, blow the whistle and throw in for B.
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