Ruling?

Scotto · #1 (**permalink**) Fri Nov 14, 2003, 03:15pm

R1 on second - 1 out. Fast runner and good bunter at bat. Third baseman is playing in front of the bag by 5-10 feet. R1 decides to steal as batter hits shot past third baseman. Ball hits R1 as he is running to third. No other infielder would have made play. Ball then goes into dead ball territory. I understand base runner is safe, but where do you put the runners after ball has become dead?

Thanks

Illini_Ref · #2 (**permalink**) Fri Nov 14, 2003, 03:27pm

I sure hope youscore R1 and pur BR on second, because that is what I would do.

Scotto · #3 (**permalink**) Fri Nov 14, 2003, 03:34pm

Thats what I thought would be right, but I was not sure where to put the batter since the "offense" committed the dead ball.

greymule · #4 (**permalink**) Fri Nov 14, 2003, 04:11pm

Be sure you know what is meant by "past [the] third baseman." OBR, NCAA, and Fed spell out differently exactly what constitutes a batted ball going "past a fielder," such as "within arm's reach," etc.

It's in my BRD, but I don't remember the specific differences offhand. I'm sure someone will fill us in.

If the ball indeed went "past" F5 by definition, then the ball is in play and of course Illini_Ref is correct.

SC Ump · #5 (**permalink**) Fri Nov 14, 2003, 07:16pm

Quote:

Originally posted by Scotto
Thats what I thought would be right, but I was not sure where to put the batter since the "offense" committed the dead ball.

Don't let any one argue that with you. In a ground rule double, the offense also "commits the dead ball." Obviously if you felt that R1 did something intentional then the ruling would be different.